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9

The Bible says a great deal about testing prophets and spirits. A spirit will confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh. Dear friends, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. 2 This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that ...


9

Short answer, no. Not at all. It would count as plausible deniability to the straw-man definition of "the inspired and infallible word of God", but only to the false straw-man understanding. The problem is that, almost no denomination believes that inspiration and infallibility are attributed to modern versions/translations of Scripture. Inspiration ...


8

The books known as "apocryphal" defined by Protestants are defined by Catholics as "Deuterocanonical" (a second canon) comes from Septuagint, a Greek translation (with these additional books) of Hebrew Tanakh. Which later around 4th century, was translated by St. Jerome to Vulgate, a Latin edition of the OT. Besides the Catholic Church, the Constantinople ...


8

This answer brings up an interesting verse in 1 Corinthians 7, when Paul distinguishes between his words and the Lord's. Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: A wife is not to depart from her husband. But even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. And a husband is not to divorce his wife. But to ...


7

One of the closest examples would be Paul's Letter to the Laodiceans. Scholarship is divided about the authorship, whether it is Paul or a Marcionite forgery - but the point is that at the time, when canonization was occurring, it was not accepted as such. Most everything else (Gospel of Peter, Gospel of Thomas, etc...) was pretty much rejected even at the ...


6

Short answer: According to the catholic church, ALL of its doctrines are infallible. Long answer: The problem arises when someone questions whether a particular subject (matter of grave importance) is a Catholic doctrine or not. When that occurs, and there is an eminent danger of those people (who may or may not hold an ecclesiastical post) present a false ...


6

Nothing is unnecessary within scripture: everything mentioned in scripture is essential and not merely curious, because all scripture is useful for teaching, refutation, correction, and training in righteousness: 2 Timothy 3:16-17 16 All scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for refutation, for correction, and for training in ...


6

Sometimes it is best to see a theologian in action to determine their view and attitude about inerrancy. There is a classical error in most of our Bibles in Matthew 27:9 where Matthew means to quote Zechariah 11:13 concerning the 'thirty pieces of silver' but it says ‘Jeremiah’. I have glanced at a few modern explanations about this and it seems ...


6

Parts of this answer is taken directly from the Catechism of the Catholic Church (1994) which carries the seal of Imprimi Potest, by which the Catholic Church recognizes the publication to be free of doctrinal error (as I understand it). On the Inspiration and Truth of Sacred Scripture, attesting to divine authorship: 105 God is the author of Sacred ...


6

This is a really good site that discusses the two topics. Follow the links at the bottom to find the corresponding article on Infallibility. In short summary inerrant means "without error" and infallible means "incapable of error. The reason why those seem very similar is that, with respect to the Bible, they are. The word infallible is normally applied to ...


5

No. On this site, a Christian is defined as someone who self-identifies as a Christian. Also, from a cultural standpoint, this is the only useful definition in my opinion. And clearly, according to this definition, you don't even need to know the Bible exists to be a Christian. Early first-century Christians didn't have the Bible (to the extent that it ...


5

[Note: this answer was posted *before* the question was edited and refers to two questions that were in the original, paraphrased here: (1) what does the Bible itself say on the subject and (2) must someone accept that the Bible is inerrant and infallible in order to be considered a Christian] Some people take the warning at the end of Revelation to apply ...


4

Forgive me for answering my own question… There are several scenarios I can think of regarding this passage. John himself added this passage later on. John told this story enough that later his followers thought it appropriate to add this passage to John’s account. This account was so common among early Christians and fit so well at this point in John’s ...


4

I believe it to be the reason that faithful Catholics like myself can even attempt to answer questions like this! If we do this Always to be ready to obey with mind and heart, setting aside all judgement of one's own, the true spouse of Jesus Christ, our holy mother, our infallible and orthodox mistress, the Catholic Church, whose authority is exercised ...


3

This doctrine is taught in The Dogmatic Constitution of the Church of the Second Vatican Council, paragraph #12 as follows: "The holy people of God shares also in Christ's prophetic office; it spreads abroad a living witness to Him, especially by means of a life of faith and charity and by offering to God a sacrifice of praise, the tribute of lips which ...


3

In a general sense, No. Christians believe that Jesus Christ is the son of God and the savior of mankind. Christians believe that the Bible is Holy and is the revealed Word of God. Beyond that, the specifics vary, sometimes widely, between denominations. Some believe the Bible is literal truth, and that every verse is accurately and precisely true. ...


2

The Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy is a 1978 document that outlines an Evangelical Christian view of Inerrancy (full document). It was formulated and agreed to by over 200 ministers and leaders. While I know of no similar effort to define infallibility of the Bible, I think this document will fully explain the concept from a Evangelical ...


2

The Wikipedia article on Biblical inerrancy says this: Another often used adjective to characterize the Bible is "infallible". From dictionary definitions, Frame (2002) insists that this is a stronger term than "inerrant." "'Inerrant' means there are no errors; 'infallible' means there can be no errors." Yet, he agrees that "modern theologians ...


2

No, absolutely not at all It is well-known that the Bible was not written down as a single chunk, intended from the start to be taken as infallible. The process by which those writings were declared to be Scripture took hundreds of years, and the addition of the last twelve verses of Mark certainly predate that. So at the point where the canon of scripture ...


2

Short answer: How you view the Bible is not the determining factor in your salvation. One can also certainly belong to a Christian church or denomination and deny inerrancy. However how you view the Bibles truth claims will in large part shape your own personal faith. The vast majority of those who espouse this view specifically state that the inerrant ...


2

Warning: Catholic Answer in which I reinterpret what you say about "Word of God" as "things asserted by the Holy Spirit", I think these are equivalent but you may not. This disclaimer might actually be the whole answer to the question, but read on if you dare. One of awesome and useful documents from 2nd Vatican Council stated: Therefore, since ...


2

Here's some verses on infallibility: 2 Timothy 3:16 Isaiah 55:10-11 2 Peter 1:19-21 The latter is worth citing here: And we have something more sure, the prophetic word, to which you will do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts, 20knowing this first of all, ...


1

Bishops in themselves are not infallible. However, they do participate in some way in the infallibility of the Catholic Church. Catholic Bishops participate in the ordinary and universal episcopal magisterium of the Catholic Church. This is a fuzzy set of teachings that are infallible, and come from the authority of the Church to teach The Faith. What ...


1

The idea that everything a Pope (or the Catholic church) teaches is infallible is simply a flawed premise. After searching on the Vatican website, I found that the CCC quite clearly defines dogma, which is the form of doctrine which is infallible or irrevocable in the words of the CCC (emphasis mine): The dogmas of the faith 88 The Church's ...


1

You might want to look at the book "Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma" by Ludwig Ott. In addition to saying what the Catholic Church teaches, it annotates the teachings with indications of how certain they are and (therefore) how obligatory it is to believe them. The highest level is "De fide" ("of the faith"); these are doctrines infallibly proclaimed by ...


1

Jayarathina Madharasan has already answered the question asked. But I noticed there is another sub question to this which is: "I can't immediately think of a reason why ex cathedra statements would be the only ones to result in infallible doctrines" I would try to put some light on this valid point. Ex-cathedra means "solemn papal definitions". It is ...


1

There is another example: Epistle of Barnabas, which suffers from some of the same questions of date and authorship that the letter to the Laodiceans.



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