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22

As noted in the question, these are layman's terms. However, I am providing links to more official definitions, which have been used as source material. Definition of the term "Inspired": The doctrine of the inspiration of the Bible means that the Bible in the original documents is God-breathed, that it is a divine product, and, because it is divine, the ...


12

The Bible says a great deal about testing prophets and spirits. A spirit will confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh. Dear friends, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. 2 This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that ...


10

The books known as "apocryphal" to Protestants are defined by Catholics as "Deuterocanonical" (a second canon). They come from the Septuagint, a Greek translation (with these additional books) of the Hebrew Tanakh. Later, around the 4th century, the Old Testament was translated by St. Jerome into Latin as part of the Vulgate. Besides the Catholic Church, ...


10

Without much detail, here is an overview of how different Christians view the Bible. These are major categories, and there is going to be some grey area between all of them. The Bible is inerrant on all matters it addresses, and should be taken to speak the literal truth unless the Bible itself says otherwise. Also called Biblical Literalism. Adherents to ...


9

Short answer, no. Not at all. It would count as plausible deniability to the straw-man definition of "the inspired and infallible word of God", but only to the false straw-man understanding. The problem is that, almost no denomination believes that inspiration and infallibility are attributed to modern versions/translations of Scripture. Inspiration ...


9

This is a really good site that discusses the two topics. Follow the links at the bottom to find the corresponding article on Infallibility. In short summary inerrant means "without error" and infallible means "incapable of error. The reason why those seem very similar is that, with respect to the Bible, they are. The word infallible is normally applied to ...


7

Sometimes it is best to see a theologian in action to determine their view and attitude about inerrancy. There is a classical error in most of our Bibles in Matthew 27:9 where Matthew means to quote Zechariah 11:13 concerning the 'thirty pieces of silver' but it says ‘Jeremiah’. I have glanced at a few modern explanations about this and it seems ...


7

This answer brings up an interesting verse in 1 Corinthians 7, when Paul distinguishes between his words and the Lord's. Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: A wife is not to depart from her husband. But even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. And a husband is not to divorce his wife. But to ...


7

One of the closest examples would be Paul's Letter to the Laodiceans. Scholarship is divided about the authorship, whether it is Paul or a Marcionite forgery - but the point is that at the time, when canonization was occurring, it was not accepted as such. Most everything else (Gospel of Peter, Gospel of Thomas, etc...) was pretty much rejected even at the ...


6

Inerrancy: To say that the scriptures are "inerrant" literally means that they are "without error." That is, that there is not one single error in spelling, grammar, fact, etc. any where in all of scripture. Jesus said in Matthew 5:18 "For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until ...


6

Short answer: According to the catholic church, ALL of its doctrines are infallible. Long answer: The problem arises when someone questions whether a particular subject (matter of grave importance) is a Catholic doctrine or not. When that occurs, and there is an eminent danger of those people (who may or may not hold an ecclesiastical post) present a false ...


6

Nothing is unnecessary within scripture: everything mentioned in scripture is essential and not merely curious, because all scripture is useful for teaching, refutation, correction, and training in righteousness: 2 Timothy 3:16-17 16 All scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for refutation, for correction, and for training in ...


5

To answer all three questions at once, here is 2 Pet 1:21: For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. (2 Peter 1:21 - KJV, emphasis added) Longer Answer Inspired means that a scribe penned it as a prophet spoke what the holy spirit of God had to say. It was written down ...


5

Forgive me for answering my own question… There are several scenarios I can think of regarding this passage. John himself added this passage later on. John told this story enough that later his followers thought it appropriate to add this passage to John’s account. This account was so common among early Christians and fit so well at this point in John’s ...


5

Some historical background regarding the Canon of Scripture The books that non-Catholics (generally Protestants) call the Apocrypha are called by Catholics the Deuterocanonical books (from the Greek δεύτερος, second; and κανῶν, literally a straight rod or bar, hence a unit of measure, or, by extension, a list). They are called the “second” canon because, ...


5

[Note: this answer was posted *before* the question was edited and refers to two questions that were in the original, paraphrased here: (1) what does the Bible itself say on the subject and (2) must someone accept that the Bible is inerrant and infallible in order to be considered a Christian] Some people take the warning at the end of Revelation to apply ...


5

The Wikipedia article on Biblical inerrancy says this: Another often used adjective to characterize the Bible is "infallible". From dictionary definitions, Frame (2002) insists that this is a stronger term than "inerrant." "'Inerrant' means there are no errors; 'infallible' means there can be no errors." Yet, he agrees that "modern theologians ...


4

In the Catholic tradition, there 3 types of biblical writings Canononical works Deuterocanonical works Apocrapha The OP states that there are several books "used in addition to the same Old Testament canon used by Protestants", but also calls these books Apocrapha which betrays the OP's Protestant tradition since the Catholic tradition regards these ...


4

In a general sense, No. Christians believe that Jesus Christ is the son of God and the savior of mankind. Christians believe that the Bible is Holy and is the revealed Word of God. Beyond that, the specifics vary, sometimes widely, between denominations. Some believe the Bible is literal truth, and that every verse is accurately and precisely true. ...


4

I believe it to be the reason that faithful Catholics like myself can even attempt to answer questions like this! If we do this Always to be ready to obey with mind and heart, setting aside all judgement of one's own, the true spouse of Jesus Christ, our holy mother, our infallible and orthodox mistress, the Catholic Church, whose authority is exercised ...


4

This doctrine is taught in The Dogmatic Constitution of the Church of the Second Vatican Council, paragraph #12 as follows: "The holy people of God shares also in Christ's prophetic office; it spreads abroad a living witness to Him, especially by means of a life of faith and charity and by offering to God a sacrifice of praise, the tribute of lips which ...


4

No, the Summa Theologica/Theologiae is not infallible. It was written by St. Thomas Aquinas, who though he was very good, holy, and learned, was not infallible. On those occasions on which the Pope is considered infallible (that is, when he addresses the whole Church as its teacher and pastor, and defines a doctrine which must be held by the whole Church), ...


3

No. On this site, a Christian is defined as someone who self-identifies as a Christian. Also, from a cultural standpoint, this is the only useful definition in my opinion. And clearly, according to this definition, you don't even need to know the Bible exists to be a Christian. Early first-century Christians didn't have the Bible (to the extent that it ...


3

Documents of ecumenical councils receive their authority from the Pope who solemnly approves them. Councils give council to a Pope, and it is by his authority alone that their documents can be infallible. Conciliarism, which teaches that a general council of the Church has higher authority than the Pope, is a condemned heresy. The First Vatican Council's ...


2

Short answer: How you view the Bible is not the determining factor in your salvation. One can also certainly belong to a Christian church or denomination and deny inerrancy. However how you view the Bibles truth claims will in large part shape your own personal faith. The vast majority of those who espouse this view specifically state that the inerrant ...


2

No, absolutely not at all It is well-known that the Bible was not written down as a single chunk, intended from the start to be taken as infallible. The process by which those writings were declared to be Scripture took hundreds of years, and the addition of the last twelve verses of Mark certainly predate that. So at the point where the canon of scripture ...


2

Warning: Catholic Answer in which I reinterpret what you say about "Word of God" as "things asserted by the Holy Spirit", I think these are equivalent but you may not. This disclaimer might actually be the whole answer to the question, but read on if you dare. One of awesome and useful documents from 2nd Vatican Council stated: Therefore, since ...


2

Here's some verses on infallibility: 2 Timothy 3:16 Isaiah 55:10-11 2 Peter 1:19-21 The latter is worth citing here: And we have something more sure, the prophetic word, to which you will do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts, 20knowing this first of all, ...


2

Bishops in themselves are not infallible. However, they do participate in some way in the infallibility of the Catholic Church. Catholic Bishops participate in the ordinary and universal episcopal magisterium of the Catholic Church. This is a fuzzy set of teachings that are infallible, and come from the authority of the Church to teach The Faith. What ...



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