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11

Oftentimes, the simplest answer is the correct one. So here's the obvious answer: He spoke and wrote in Hebrew because he was dealing with Hebrew-speaking people at the moment. Had God spoken to them in English, Latin, or Chinese, they would not have understood him! God, being omniscient, knows all human languages. This means that he has no trouble ...


8

Jesus would have spoken Aramaic which is descended from Hebrew, but is not the same language. This is evidenced by the fact that in the few places where Jesus words are left untranslated, he is speaking in Aramaic—Abba, father. And Talitha cum (Daughter arise) Also, whether or not Matthew is the first gospel is a matter of some debate. The Greisbach ...


7

Hermann Gunkel's psalm commentary lets us know this: "The metaphor of the horn, originally used by God (cf. the Babylonian crown of horns) was then transferred to the king, and finally to the normal prayer."1 In the accompanying intruction to the psalms, he calls the horns a "symbol of God's power".2 Spurgeon basically says the same. I quote: "It pleased ...


5

The prophecies of Daniel are chiefly written in Aramaic, thereby providing a non-Hebrew example of a revelation, ergo God spoke to Daniel in a language other than Hebrew. If they were first written in Aramaic by an Aramaic and Hebrew speaker (The Book of Daniel is actually written using both languages in different chapters), then it seems a stretch to argue ...


5

Proverbs 1:4-5 tells us his audience: 4 for giving prudence to those who are simple, knowledge and discretion to the young— 5 let the wise listen and add to their learning, and let the discerning get guidance— They were written to the "simple," which the NIV defines as "The Hebrew word rendered simple in Proverbs denotes a person who is gullible, ...


4

The Hebrew language only has two grammatical genders: masculine (זָכָר) and feminine (נְקֵבָה). Therefore, every Hebrew noun has an inherent grammatical gender. In the case of the noun רוּחַ, the grammatical gender is feminine. Yet, this does not mean the natural gender of the Holy Spirit is feminine. As for why the Holy Spirit would be "male," so to speak, ...


4

This is a famous spat between Jerome and Augustine. You may have seen "The Very Secret Diary of St Augustine" that has been circulating recently: Correspondence Jerome continues. Infuriating. Do not understand why he does not see my point! Translation of "gourd" vital to understanding of gospels. The argument plays out in a series of their letters. The ...


4

Biblical Hebrew seems to have gone through three eras: Archaic Hebrew (1000 BC to 800 BC), Standard Biblical Hebrew (800 - 600 BC), and Late Biblical Hebrew (600 - 200ish BC). The Hebrews scribes preserved these different eras as they copied the Hebrew Bible in such a way that a trained person can see the different linguistic layers as they read through the ...


3

This is an interesting topic; there has been quite a bit written about it. A Hebrew Lexicon is a good place to start and will give you a basic idea of the range of meanings.1 The term is קרן , qeren. The lexicon is a little difficult to read, so I have reproduced a portion of it here with liberal excerpting, clarifying, expansion of abbreviations, etc. Words ...


2

Does hell really burn forever? Ask yourself this, are Sodom and Gomorrah still burning? No they are not. Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire. Jude 1:7 Because they are ...


2

This is the verse in hebrew. I highlighted the word "naase". It's the first person plural form of "asah" (Strong's H6213) :ח. וַיַּעֲנוּ כָל הָעָם יַחְדָּו וַיֹּאמְרוּ כֹּל אֲשֶׁר דִּבֶּר יְהוָֹה נַעֲשֶׂה וַיָּשֶׁב משֶׁה אֶת דִּבְרֵי הָעָם אֶל יְהוָֹה I found at least one [commentary] that describes the relationship with God as a two-sided agreement. ...


1

While I can't say with certainty, I think the answer is likely to be yes (feminine) as supported by the arguments below, and I think you are on to something big! This is a question I wondered about after reading the verses discussed below from the Bible. There are a few arguments that lead me to believe the Holy Spirit might be feminine: Genesis 1:26-27 ...


1

(LDS view) According to the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, the gender of the Holy Ghost is male, simply because the Holy Ghost is a spirit man, a spirit son of God the Father, and one of our spirit brothers: "The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints teaches that the Holy Ghost is a spirit man, a spirit son of God the Father. It ...


1

Whilst most people on this site have dismissed this question as silly, it is in fact very profound. The Hebrew language is unique among all language that exist or have ever existed in that it has several distinct layers of meaning. It is, linguistically speaking, a Semitic language like Aramaic and Arabic (among several), but no other language in this ...


1

I have been thinking and reading on the issue. There is no official or credible sources that state that the first gospel has written in Hebrew. Introduction to the New Testament by DA Carson & Douglas J.Moo does not event bring the issue up. Mounce in is Basics of Biblical Greek does not seem to bring the issue either. The ESV Study Bible does not ...



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