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28

The word porneia is often translated as "fornication". 1 Cor 7:2 (KJV) Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. It's worth noting that more modern translations use "sexual immorality" here instead of "fornication" due to the confusion with that given word. Looking at the English ...


18

When discussing pre-marital sex I think we can even throw out the debate over the translation porneia to fornication. We can look at what the Bible says about sex, which makes the definition of porneia irrelevant because I agree that it isn't a solid case in itself. The Bible states that if a man sleeps with a virgin he is to take her as his wife (Exodus ...


17

First, actually, it was very likely that Jesus and His followers spoke no fewer than these three languages: Aramaic, Greek, and Hebrew. What language did Jesus speak? Aramaic was the primary language of the land, Greek was the language of business, education, and for communication with foreigners (because it was a wide-spread language), and Hebrew was the ...


14

It is simply Greek that has been written in Roman letters. The city of Rome was essentially bilingual from around the time of Caesar Augustus until at least the third or fourth century A.D.: the people spoke mostly vulgar Latin or common (Koine) Greek. Greek was the more common language among the poor, who formed the majority of the ranks of the Church at ...


13

Fornication has changed its meaning since 1611, so reading its definition in a modern English dictionary does little good. In 1611, fornication meant prostitution (as abundantly proven ad infinitum on the "goldenrule" website)and was a perfect translation of "porneia", which is the activity of porné, or prostitutes. Though the entry at dictionary.com - ...


13

First, understanding that this is not a site to learn about Truth, but rather to learn about Christianity - what the various teachings are from an academic perspective, the question "Which is true" is off-topic. However, we could take a couple of approaches that would be within the bounds of the site: Answering what various denominations believe about ...


9

The Catholic Church does indeed usually refer to itself just as "The Catholic Church". That is what it's Wikipedia article calls it (Wikipedia usually names all organizations according to what they call themselves). Many Catholic-related organizations just use the word "Catholic" in their names - CAFOD is an example; Catholic School boards are another. The ...


9

A large, solid rock that served as a foundation to build something upon that nothing could wipe out calls to mind the end of the Sermon on the Mount: Matthew 7:24-25 24 Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine, and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock: 25 And the rain descended, and the ...


9

Having chased up the account provided in the answer that follows, I now find there is a full-blown and properly specialist study of precisely this question. Gratifyingly, the main contours are the same, and it looks like Benecke is indeed one of the "heroes" of the tale. Interested readers should therefore consult: Benjamin Schliesser, "‘Exegetical Amnesia’ ...


8

Ok, so the reality is that there is the appearance of a Discrepancy of sorts in the bible, Peter being called "Pétros", and The church being built on "pétra." As a Catholic heres how we interpret this scripture. the Aramaic word kēpā' meaning rock and transliterated into Greek as Kēphas is the name by which peter is called in the Pauline letters (1 ...


8

As a supplement to David's answer, and in response to your second bullet in particular, let me offer the following. In "ΠΙΣΤΙΣ ΧΡΙΣΤΟΥ: Witness of the Fathers" (1994), Roy A. Harrisville reports on an examination of all the occurrences of this and similar phrases in the Greek Fathers. He lists a number of ambiguous cases, several examples of subjective ...


7

The commonly held understanding is partially correct, but overstated. In reality, the semantic range of the words is broader. Agape It is true that the words ἀγαπάω (agapaó) and ἀγάπη (agapé) came to mean something like "the highest form of love," but this was primarily due later Christian usage of the term. At the time of the New Testament's writing, ...


7

As another answer alluded to, Jesus almost certainly was speaking Aramaic, not Greek when he spoke these words. As such, it is probably a mistake to automatically assume that Jesus was making a philosophical point by using two different words based on the Greek. Instead, we should see what explanations are available as to how the Greek came from the ...


6

Some believe that Jesus was crucified on a single, upright stake (i.e., no crossbeam). In John 20:25, it is written, Therefore, the other disciples said to him, "We have seen the Lord." But he said to them, "Unless I shall see the print of the nails in his hands, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not ...


6

"But Jesus lived in Israel and was supposed to be the next King of Israel. ... Then why would the new testament be written in Greek?" There would be no special spiritual connection with Hebrew in particular; Christ did not come to reign over Israel. Christ is the King of Kings, and He rules over all the earth and heaven. He came for our salvation, to ...


6

There are two parts for this: First part: The Catholic Church ('C' as capital) is that group of churches in communion with the pope. If a group isn’t in communion with the pope, it isn’t part of the Catholic Church. Within the Catholic Church there are a number of individual churches, sometimes called rites. One of these is the Roman rite or Roman ...


6

From the FaithLife Study Bible, this represents the undersatnding of the universe held by the Greeks: According to ancient cosmology, there are seven levels: the sky, the clouds, the sky above the clouds, the firmament, the waters above the firmament, the heavens, and the heaven of heavens, where God dwells. The three heavens view understands the first ...


6

I looked into Lampe (ed.)"A Patristic Greek Lexicon", Oxford University Press, 1961. It makes four mentions for the use of hodos in this sense: Eusebius of Caesarea, Ecclesiastical History, Book 5, Chapter 1,48. (Migne 20.428A) Chrysostom, Homily 19 on the Acts of the Apostoles (Migne 60.152) Ammonius of Alexandria, On the Acts of the Apostoles 14:14 ...


6

You will find the among some KJV-Onlyists the assertion that the 1611 KJV Bible was directly inspired by God. That cuts away any need for them to explain why the KJV can be considered the infallible word of God while its immediate predecesors should be viewed with scepticism. For example, Peter Ruckman: The text of the A.V. 1611, in Genesis 27, is the ...


5

This document should shed some light on the usage of the word porneia and the Greek word family it belongs to. Here is an excerpt from the conclusion: In this study we have looked at the word family -porn- in extra-biblical Greek literature, in the OT, and in the NT. In all sources, porneia and the related terms refer to sexual acts only. Both OT ...


5

Of the three types of love you mention, agape and phileo are found in the Bible. The third one, eros, is not in the Bible. There's one often-cited passage that nicely displays both agape (ἀγαπᾷς) and phileo (φιλῶ, φιλεῖς). I'll show it in both English and Greek, highlighting the words meaning love. John 21:15-17 (ESV) 15 When they had finished ...


4

The normal explanation is that Jesus quoted the scriptures in Aramaic*, but as the LXX was the readily available translation of the Greek (and the Gospel writers probably had large portions of the Greek memorized), the Gospel writers would defer to its translation instead of translating directly. *Because the authors of the LXX had different resources ...


4

The most obvious answer is Jesus' words to his disciples at the Last Supper, in Matthew's version: this is my blood of the covenant, which will be shed on behalf of many for the forgiveness of sins. (Matthew 26:28, New American Bible Revised Edition)


4

The following is a list of multitudes of Greek words that share the same suffix -γενής, each with possesses the sense of “born”/ “begotten”: ἀφρογενής = “foam-born” Αἰγυπτογενής = “born of an Egyptian” αἰθρηγενής = “born in Aether (clear sky)” ἁλιγενής = “sea-born” (also, ποντογενής; θαλασσογενής) ἀλλογενής = “born of another [race]” ἀρτιγενής = “just ...


3

Does hell really burn forever? Ask yourself this, are Sodom and Gomorrah still burning? No they are not. Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire. Jude 1:7 Because they are ...


3

In the Psalms, we read that the heavens declare the glory of God. In this case, the psalmist seems to be referring to what we call "space", as he asserts that in the heavens is where the sun resides. The heavens declare the glory of God, and the sky above proclaims his handiwork... 5 In them he has set a tent for the sun, which comes out like a ...


3

I will attempt1 to answer Is this an accurate translation? and leave the liturgical question to someone else. First the text for reference: Ἀναστάσεως ἡμέρα, καὶ ἡ ἀρχὴ δεξιὰ, καὶ λαμπρυνθῶμεν τῇ πανηγύρει, καὶ ἀλλήλους περιπτυξώμεθα. It is the Day of the Resurrection, and my Beginning has good auspices. Let us then keep the Festival with ...


3

και is simply a conjunction and the context dictates how it can best be translated into English to best convey its sense. While it can simply be translated as 'and' in both places, the OP is correct in noting that typically καὶ...καὶ implies some sort of emphasis (and...or, both...and, on one hand...on the other, as well...as, not only...but also, etc.). The ...


2

There's quite a bit of evidence in this link that porneia means prostitution. (SEE "FORNICATION - ORIGINAL GREEK") I'm not sure if the Strong's definition above is actually the original definition of porneia. Even the word "fornication" comes from the Latin word fornix (arch) referring to brothels. So when you consider the roots of these words it's ...


2

There are really two parts to an answer. One is that the word "Fornication" is clearly defined in English: "voluntary sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons or two persons not married to each other". Clearly pre-marital sex comes under that definition. The second part is the Greek word. The evidence I will cite here is that many generations ...



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