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30

No, for a whole lot of reasons. Old Testament Law says that a man who has sex with an unmarried woman has to marry her. That would be unnecessary if having sex made them married. If that were the case, some teacher somewhere would be reminding people that they had to treat the people they had sex with as if they were wives. Tamar has sex with Judah because ...


21

Your answer is contained within the passage you quoted; He was not permitting the demons to speak, because they knew who He was - Mark 1:34 He didn't want the demons revealing His identity. Why? Because it wasn't time for Him to die yet. Every time the Jews began to catch on to the idea that Jesus was the Son of God, they sought to kill Him. His ...


16

This potential discrepancy is addressed at http://www.apologeticspress.org/apcontent.aspx?category=6&article=768 Possible resolutions to the discrepancies between the accounts: Possibility #1: Initially, both thieves reviled Christ, but then one of them repented. After hearing Jesus’ words on the cross, and seeing His forgiving attitude, the ...


15

Short and sweet answer: No, otherwise fornication would be impossible.


13

This is the matter of some debate, and there are at least three theories about it that I'm familiar with. I actually found a study online that explains all of them here. Some relevant sections (copied and pasted since the author explains it better than I would): The one that is popular in my denomination: One explanation that is popular among ...


13

The very next chapter indicates that Ahimelek had a son named Abiathar. Priestly duties were typically within a given family at one time (eg Aaron and his sons). The title of "high priest", while alone at any given time, does not preclude there being other priests (otherwise Aaron and his sons would have all been "high priests" - whereas "high priest" ...


13

There was no mandate that the gospels should appear in the order they were written once they were gathered into a collection. This is true of the rest of the New Testament as well. The order is the gospel accounts, the history of the early church, the letters of Paul to churches, to people, letters by other apostles, and prophecy. So, there ...


11

Let's go back and re-read the incident that prompted Jesus' teaching: And as he was setting out on his journey, a man ran up and knelt before him and asked him, “Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?” And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone. You know the commandments: ‘Do not murder, Do not commit ...


10

It is almost certain that this person is Matthew. In the parallel account of this narrative in the Gospel of Matthew, we see that Levi appears to be "renamed" Matthew. Matthew 9:9 (NIV) 9As Jesus went on from there, he saw a man named Matthew sitting at the tax collector’s booth. “Follow me,” he told him, and Matthew got up and followed him. It is ...


9

The theological term here is kenosis From Phillipians 2:6-7 though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself ... In short, Jesus gave up the perks of being God in order to identify with humanity.


9

Short answer, no. Not at all. It would count as plausible deniability to the straw-man definition of "the inspired and infallible word of God", but only to the false straw-man understanding. The problem is that, almost no denomination believes that inspiration and infallibility are attributed to modern versions/translations of Scripture. Inspiration ...


8

There are two theories in regards to this: Jesus is not part of God. See also: Is there Biblical basis for unitarianism? Jesus and God are joined in the Trinity, but separate in thought and will. See also: Biblical basis for the doctrine of the Trinity Would it have been possible for Jesus to sin? Take your pick.


8

Because He didn't want such filthiness testifying of His divine name. Dr. Talmage, in his classic and instructive essay Jesus the Christ, remarks as such: On these as on other occasions we find evil spirits voicing through the mouths of their victims their knowledge that Jesus was the Christ and in all such instances the Lord silenced them with a word; ...


7

These two different accounts in Luke 23:39 on one side and Mark 15:32 and Mathew 27:44 on other side can be reconciled. by supposing that, at first, both of them reviled the Saviour, and that it is of this fact that Matthew and Mark speaks. Afterwards one of them relented, and became penitent-- perhaps from witnessing the patient sufferings of Christ. It is ...


7

Demons can say pretty much whatever they want, lying or telling the truth as it suits them. Jesus had already been accused of consorting with demons by such groups as the Sanhedrin (for example, in Matthew 12:24). He refuted those claims, of course, but they kept coming up, so it's likely that at least some people believed them. In that context, a demon ...


6

Hmm, how do you get from "it is hard for the rich to enter Heaven" to "a Christian shouldn't buy any luxuries"? I think you need to present some logical argument why that follows. In practical terms, what do you define as "luxury"? You could survive with some basic food and shelter from the elements. Everything beyond that could be considered "luxuries". ...


6

Jesus does not seem to consider merely being with a man to make him your husband. John 4:16-19 (DRA) 16 Jesus saith to her: Go, call thy husband, and come hither. 17 The woman answered, and said: I have no husband. Jesus said to her: Thou hast said well, I have no husband:     18 For thou hast had five husbands: and he whom thou now ...


6

I hate to answer your question with a question, but since this is a mystery, I don't think you can logically consign yourself to one of Richards options. Not that those ideas aren't logical, they just don't quite fit, or satisfy me as a Catholic. The commentary in the NABRE is not very useful, it just says not to doubt the veracity of the verse. But ...


6

I believe so. Popular thought on the subject agree that Bartholomew and Nathanael are the same person. While there is no passage in the Bible that directly says "Bartholomew is Nathanael," circumstantial evidence points in that direction. Arguments can be made either way; church tradition points toward them being one and the same. Arguments for: First, ...


6

TL;DR: Milk before meat. Deep doctrine is dangerous to an unprepared soul. "I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able." (see 1 Corinthians 3:1-3) Christ taught in parables [as did Isaiah] so that the spiritually immature and spiritually mature could both benefit from the ...


6

Purple in the Roman Empire was associated with triumph, and came to be associated with the Emperors specifically. Along with the crown of thorns, the purple robe was a mocking symbol of Jesus' royalty.


5

If you're describing something that for example, the American president did before he was president you would still refer to him as President Obama would you not? Mark does not say that he was literally the high priest at the time. It was however, in his days - when he was alive.


5

It's more likely Matthew and Levi were different disciples than the same. A number of the disciples had other names like we do today, however, the Gospels refer to James the son of Alphaeus (Mark 3:18) as a different disciple from Matthew (Mark 3:18). The Bible also mentions a disciple : "Levi the son of Alphaeus" (Mark 2:14). It's more likely this James and ...


5

It's Syriac. Matthew Henry's commentary in the sidebar at this link says Christ’s prayer was bantered by them that stood by (Mark 15:35, 36); because he cried, Eli, Eli, or (as Mark has it, according to the Syriac dialect) Eloi, Eloi, they said, He calls for Elias, though they knew very well what he said, and what it signified, My God, My God. Thus did ...


5

The New Testament was written in Greek, but the Greek text records Jesus' words in Aramaic (in Mark, Hebrew in Matthew). The Gospel writers transliterated the Aramaic (Mk 15) and Hebrew (Mt 27) into the Greek script. It is important here to distinguish between script and language. For instance, I can write in Spanish, Latin, German, English, etc. all with ...


5

I assume you're refering to Mark 12:25 where it says: When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven. (NIV) First a couple of notes on context. This was the answer to a trick question from a group of Sadducees. The Sadducees were an elitist liberal group similar to the Pharisees, who were an ...


4

The words of Jesus answer this: The fact is, you have had five husbands, and the man you now have is not your husband. What you have just said is quite true. John 4:18 Clearly Jesus did not associate the Samaritans woman's relationship with marriage.


4

I don't know any place in the Bible that actually defines marriage, but there are some clues, like: Gen 34:1-4 Shechem has sexual relations with Dinah, and then AFTER doing this, says he wants to marry her. As Cwallenpoole points out, if sex equaled marriage, then there could be no such thing as adultery or premarital sex by definition. I don't know any ...


4

Mark 4:10-20 explains in a little more detail what 4:1-8 recorded. Jesus is explaining to the disciples the purpose of parables as a whole, and we see that he uses the Parable of the Sower again to describe the people that the disciples will encounter. 18And others are the ones sown among thorns. They are those who hear the word, 19but the cares of the ...



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