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6

In this passage Paul is quoting from Psalm 32. The King James Version in both cases uses derivatives of the verb to impute. However, other well-respected more modern versions of the Bible do not translate it this way e.g. the NIV or the NRSV. There is a less common meaning of the word impute meaning "to assign a value to" which is used in finance. In this ...


5

Different translations describe the spirit in different ways: NIV, KJV, NASB, ISV - Evil ESV - Harmful NLT - Tormenting YLT - Spirit of Sadness However all these translations agree that this Spirit was sent from the Lord. So to stay with your question, how could a loving God send an evil spirit to torment? He could for the very same reasons he sent a ...


5

The beginnings of a response would consider the difference between a simile/parable ("The kingdom of heaven is like..."), a metaphor ("I am the vine"), and a prescription or statement of fact ("Blessed are the pure of heart"). Everyone would agree that Jesus employs a wealth of literary and rhetorical devices to communicate his beautiful message, and any ...


4

Many interpretations argue that the Song of Solomon is about both the relationship between husband and wife and about Christ and his Church. This stems in large part from Paul's words to the Ephesians: Wives, submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife even as Christ is the head of the church, his body, and is ...


4

I believe it is a matter of perspective. I don't see the fundamental Calvinist doctrine being at odds with any scripture, (although many have implemented it in ways contrary to scripture, as with any doctrine). the KJV says: Wherefore the rather, brethren, give diligence to make your calling and election sure: for if ye do these things, ye shall ...


4

Unless you're an expert in the original language (Koine Greek), it's usually a good idea to check other translations and see whether any nuance of the original language is discernible through the breadth of options. A quick survey of the options linked show that the translation of the original word for 'discouraged' (athymeō) is reasonably consistent - ...


2

It is not about abortion, it's about Jealousy and the Lord acting as a witness in trials that otherwise had none. Note that the NIV is the only translation to use the word 'miscarriage' (see Numbers 5:22 in parallel to 18 other translations). The translators interpret 'Your thigh to rot' and 'to rot [your] thigh' as 'miscarriage'. Whereas the Hebrew for ...


2

Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. We do know that Jesus did not have all of the knowledge of the Father. Philippians 2:6-7 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a ...


2

Is there any way back from the situation described in Hebrews 6:4-6? As I understand the question, you are asking if these verses mean that a Christian who "falls away" cannot be restored. In context, chapter six begins with the description of moving away from basic Christian teachings to those that are more advanced. Right away we are presented with some ...


2

I figure this website says it better than I can. "... there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake..." (Matt 19:12) There are no known scriptural or historical accounts which tell us more about these particular eunuchs. So, how are we to understand this passage? Joseph Smith said, "I have a key by which I ...


2

The New American Standard Bible Updated Edition seems to assume that Isaiah 48:16 is speaking of the Triune God, in that the words Me and Spirit are capitalized. Not so the NET Bible, however, which does not capitalize either word. The reason for the NET's approach to the verse is that the NET's translators are perhaps thinking of a man, an earthly king ...


2

". . . we have some level of influence over whether we finally end up among the elect . . .." Your words, above, summarize well the seemingly inherent contradiction between extreme Calvinism and extreme Arminianism. I use the word extreme purposely, because from my perspective there is truth in both "camps." For adherents of one camp to say the ...


2

The context is that tongues are for a few individuals to demonstrate to a group of unbelievers of the same tongue the power of God. It is only a sign to the unbeliever if the unbeliever is of that tongue and can understand it. (Acts 2:8) And how is it that we hear, each in our own language in which we were born? But as verse 23 demonstrates, if the ...


2

Ephesians 4:5 mentions Lord, faith and baptism, but it does not mean that there is only one Lord, only one faith or only one baptism. It is about believers or followers of Christ. Yet there is a lot of teaching going around, for example that there is only one baptism (i.e. water baptism). The word ONE in Eph4:5 refers to ONE AND THE SAME, meaning that ALL ...


1

"What is the Biblical definition of Marriage?" In the New Testament/New Covenant, the Bible says Christian marriage is a picture of Christ, as the husband and His Church as the bride. Christian marriage is to be an example to the world of what love really looks like, one man and one woman willing to give themselves to and for each other for life. ...


1

How do we interpret 1 Corinthians 14:22 in the context of 1 Corinthians 14:23-25? 1 Corinthians 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. 1 Corinthians 14:23-24 If therefore the whole church be come together ...


1

Opening According to Catholic Teaching, we know the meaning of the words from the deposit of faith handed to the Church by the Apostles who were taught by Christ and whose minds were opened by Christ to understand Scripture. Starting with a definition TRANSUBSTANTIATION The complete change of the substance of bread and wine into the substance of ...


1

Heaven can mean several things: The abode of God/angels/righteous The firmament (sky) State of utmost happiness These are related concepts, and even in ancient languages, these meanings are conflated. When heaven and hell are used together, #1 or #3 make the most sense. When heaven and earth are used together, #2 probably makes the most sense. So ...


1

Romans 4:8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin. "impute" = logizomai = to take an inventory, that is, estimate (literally or figuratively): - conclude, number, reason, reckon, suppose Alternate translations; Weust - Spiritually prosperous is the man to whose account the Lord does not in any case put sin. Amplified - Blessed and ...


1

This is basically a very poetic way to say; "Blessed is the man who is saved by God's Grace." Paul is teaching the Romans about the Grace of God. In chapters 4-8, Paul uses Abraham as an example to show that individuals were not justified through obedience to the law of Moses—they were justified through faith in God’s promises. Since Abraham lived centuries ...


1

Short answer - No. If you are just looking at what Paul is saying, then more 'meritorious' is an incorrect choice of words to describe his encouragement towards choosing celibacy ahead of marriage. His language that either state comes as a "gift from the Lord" (verse 7) is very much against the sense of either condition attracting any merit. Bearing in ...


1

The Seventh Day Adventists actually reference Matt 18:18; in their 28 Fundamental Beliefs: "The church derives its authority from Christ, who is the incarnate Word, and from the Scriptures, which are the written Word." The Easy-to-read Version of the bible which you have quoted in your question interprets this verse as referring to forgiveness, ...


1

What Revelation 1:1 describes is God the Father giving God the Son His permission to now reveal to us what is to come. It does not mean that Jesus did not know what these events were. This is the nature of the Godhead, the Son rejoices to do the will of the Father, though He is equal with the Father (Philippians 2:6). Similarly, the Holy Spirit does not ...


1

Actually the answer is very simple. The confusion lays in the meaning of the word "revelation". It can be taken as "disclosure of earlier not known truths" which was to John for sure BUT it can by understood as "portion of facts and doctrines" which God the Father decided to reveal to humanity and passed it on through Jesus to John. In that sense it was NOT ...


1

There are various meanings of the word "world" in Holy Scripture: I. – THE TERM “WORLD.” In order to understand more fully the notion of Cosmology, or of the science of the world, it is necessary first to explain what the term “world” or cosmos means. Cosmos is a word first used by Pythagoras, meaning ornament, or elegance, which the Latins ...



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