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I think i see it a bit differently. The scripture Jesus is talking about was the Torah. There was no NT for 300 years after Jesus was killed. When you see the term "scripture" in your NT, know that it refers to Torah and not the NT. The NT is a collection of writings attributed to the authors' name but in reality we dont know who wrote them. So my answer ...


1

Your consternation may stem from not considering that time has no meaning in the realm where God resides. As with most Old Testament Prophesy it may span a period of days, years or even centuries, as we see in the book of Daniel (as an example ) and in the New Testament book of the Revelation. All of the time of the Earth will not even be a blip in ...


2

I'm not sure this adds substantively to FMS's excellent answer, but this is the sort of criticism that could be levelled at a lot of the Messianic prophecies (eg Matthew 2:23), and I think further clarity as to why we should look beyond the context in which the original 'prophecy' (completely de-contextualised reference in scripture would seem to be a more ...


3

This is a complex question and you need to do a little investigative work. The underlying questions you need to answer are. Who was Matthew? What did he believe? Who was his audience? Is Matthew 1 accepted as authentic by the majority of biblical scholars? Does the answer change your underlying faith in the accuracy of the bible. Who was Matthew? What ...


3

Since all scripture is inspired by God1, no one comprehends it except by the Spirit of God2. There are at least a couple of ways from scripture that may have enabled St. Matthew to present what he was writing as a fulfillment of the Isaiah passage. Since he was the Gospel writer, by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, God, who inspires all scripture, and ...



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