New answers tagged

2

It was not prescribed in the Act of Supremacy, which occurred in 1534 (see that info further below). It looks like the rights to confession were first included in the "39 Articles of Religion," a small book with revisions throughout the years. Several sources confirm that these articles were drawn up in 1563 but I managed to find "An Essay on the 39 Articles ...


2

The Holy Sacrifice of the Mass: Dogmatically, Liturgically and Ascetically Explained (1902) by Fr. Nikolaus Gihr writes in the first footnote of §32, "The Language Used in the Celebration of the Holy Mass" (p. 319-328): Whether the Apostles celebrated the Holy Sacrifice in the language of each individual nation or only in the Aramean (Syro-Chaldaic), ...


4

You point appears to be partly correct. Jesus would not have endorsed usury, but that particular doctrinal point (given that most people Jesus taught at the time were already aware of OT law) may not have arisen due to common practice being in general accordance to the OT law. There is a reasonable treatment from the Catholic Point of View in the Catholic ...


0

While it was neither "Messianic Judaism" as practiced today, nor was it a group that considered itself independent of the other Gentile congregations around the world, according to reliable tradition and suggested by records and DNA, some of my ancestors were possibly members of the original Church in Jerusalem. Though a Catholic Christian, I am of ...


2

Not prior to the 2nd century, mainly since the catacombs were not developed until then. While there are various Christian frescos in these underground tombs which demonstrate a devotion to the saints, including the Virgin Mary, the time period for their origin would be no earlier than the late 2nd century or early 3rd, for even though Christians ...


0

Can't say this is an answer but maybe more at food for thought. A few concepts that come to mind: The opening of the gospel to the gentile is in direct relationship to the rejection of the gospel by the Jews. The general rejection of the Jews to their Messiah opened the door for Gentiles to be saved. Romans 11:11-31 It begs the question of what the status ...


1

Here is a handy article on the history of the KJV. I would guess that the KJV-only movement stems from its having been, for so long, the only authorized Bible in England, and thus the Bible that was brought to the New World by the Colonists. This would have made it America's, as well as England's, "official Bible." This is speculation, of course, but it is ...


-6

Baptism in the name of Jesus Christ in running water as the scriptures speak Isa 40:3¶The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the LORD, make straight in the desert a highway for our God. Mat 7:14Because strait [is] the gate, and narrow [is] the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it. Matthew 16:17-19 ...


2

According to the Catholic Encyclopedia article for the Doxology, it was used at least as early as the fourth century "as a protest against Arian subordination. The article goes on to say that in the West, the Latin version was put into a canonical form at the Fourth Synod of Toledo in 633.



Top 50 recent answers are included