Tag Info

New answers tagged

1

No, Calvin was not Nestorian. This can be concluded on the strength of the following evidence: His defense of the Chalcedonian Definition and rejection of Nestorius Related to the above, reformed theology's rejection of icons of Christ on the basis of the unity of the natures His implicit acceptance of the reality described in the term theotokos, and his ...


1

First of all, there was no Arianism prior to Arius because Arianism started with Arius.Arius began to teach a new teaching. He taught that the Logos had a beginning of existence.Although some scholars like Alexander Vasiliev refers to Lucian as the Arius before Arius.This merely shows that Lucian hold onto a proto-Arianism source. Arius was condemned while ...


0

The Church's official view is that this sure is an important question, and you should probably go try and come closer to the truth of it through prayer, fasting, and participation in the Church. The most common verbalized approximation to an answer to this question is that Christ is both Fully God and Fully Man, but this, the Church confesses, is a poor ...


0

Jesus claimed both to be God and to be the Son of God. Jesus claimed that he is God. John 10:28-33 (NIV) 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.” ...


5

In the Synoptics, Jesus showed his divinity by his words and actions. Jesus equating himself with God: Luke 8:39 (NASB) "Return to your house and describe what great things God has done for you." So he went away, proclaiming throughout the whole city what great things Jesus had done for him. Mark 5:19 (NASB) And He did not let him, ...


-5

The first gospel to be written was Mark, which takes a cautious approach more applicable to an earlier period in Christianity. Jesus never refers to himself as the Son of God. Instead, he uses terms such as "Son of man." Even the disciples never call Jesus the Son of God. However, outsiders such as demons, the high priest and the centurion do make this ...


0

Why must the hypostatic union be viewed as taking place at Jesus' conception? Because the man assumed by the Logos is His humanity and no one else. The man belongs to Logos. If the union happens at baptism then by nature that man is not divine but merely endowed with grace of adoption to be one of His children. One Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten ...


0

The issue leading up to monothelitism in the late 8th century was caused by multiple diverging Christological viewpoints disagreeing with one another. Severus of Antioch was misread badly by Chalcedonians at that time as explained by Abouna Peter Farrington. There are great differences between Monophysites and Miaphysites, the former collapsed the two ...


0

Was Christ the man created? Is it correct/acceptable in such a tradition to refer to the body of this incarnation as being created? It's perfectly Orthodox to say that Christ the man is a creature. Because it's referring to one of His two natures, that's what incarnation about. Unless God became man we wouldn't be able to become deified, theosis. We're ...


0

Pretty simply, actually. His pre-existence (yesterday) is explained as a special case: Unlike any other human, Jesus lived in heaven as a spirit person before he was born on earth. (John 8:23) He was God’s first creation, and he helped in the creation of all other things. He is the only one created directly by Jehovah and is therefore appropriately ...


-1

The death of Jesus Christ was planned by God. (For you know that God paid a ransom to save you from the empty life you inherited from your ancestors. And the ransom he paid was not mere gold or silver. It was the precious blood of Christ, the sinless, spotless Lamb of God. God chose him as your ransom long before the world began, but he has now revealed him ...


0

Innocent until conception or birth? The answer is neither. A person is guilty of sin only when s/he committing that sin not before. Because sin is different than guilt. When Adam sinned he is gulty hypostatically, his human nature is affected by the penalty of that sin but not guilty of it. Because guilt is a predicament of hypostasis not nature. In Latin ...


1

For LDS Jesus is not lesser in divinity than the Father because just as a human father can begat a human son, LDS believe our Father in heaven begat Christ in similar fashion but spiritually. Christ is the Son of God but He is not the only son. LDS believe Lucifer is His brother and the rest of mankind were once God's divine children before being sent on ...


0

Hypostatic union is define at Chalcedon. But the idea has existed before that. What has not been assumed has not been healed St. Gregory of Nazianzus, Epistle 101:32. Against Apollinarius, Gregory argued that if Christ had not been "endowed with a rational mind, how could he have been a man?" Epistle 101:34. Here, we see how the unity of ...


1

There is nothing new under the Sun, Mormon Christology is a mixture of many theological positions: Arianism, 'There was time when the Son was not.' Mormon and Arian believe the Son was not pre-exist prior to His generation as the Father's First Born in Heaven. But supposed Joseph Smith Jr., were living during the Arian controversy Arius would condemned him ...


0

The official Christological view of Catholic Church is dogmatized in her twenty one Ecumenical Councils. Council of Florence in relation to the eternal procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father through the Son is indispensable for Catholic. In those councils, the same Apostolic faith passed down from the Apostles are kept. That the whole and only person ...


0

Regarding by what it mean by separation of the natures? It refer to indissoluble unity between the two natures: divinity and humanity. The Logos incarnate can't cease from being incarnate. When He died He is not ceasing from being both divine and humane. Nature is a property belong to a person. The only and whole person of Christ is the Logos, a divine ...


-1

Mr.Bultitude's answer is correct that a distinct person is unnecessary for mediation. In the original Nicene creed (325) they conflate hypostasis and ousia as identical. But those who say: 'There was a time when he was not;' and 'He was not before he was made;' and 'He was made out of nothing,' or 'He is of another hypostasis' or 'ousia,' or 'The Son ...


0

The question is imprecise. It can be read as asking the existence of Christ before His incarnation (which is about the divine person) or about the existence of His human soul before incarnation (which is about His human nature). If it's the former the answer is definitively no. Even Arius of Alexandria while denying the Son is of the same essence with the ...


1

It depends. Ecclesiology in Eastern Orthodox Church is predominantly based from their Pneumatology that the Holy Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father alone. In this sense, the visible Church is connected invisibly to the Holy Spirit who proceeded not from the Son. This is why decentralization is the dominant view in Eastern Orthodoxy. In the other hand ...


0

Notice the reading of the King James Version: Revelation 13:8 (KJV) And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. Modern Translations read differently: Revelation 13:8 (ESV) and all who dwell on earth will worship it, everyone whose ...


0

Just like St. Augustine f.e., I believe that God lives outside of time. Unlike him, I have come to know that time is but another dimension in our universe, the fourth dimension of space-time. So time, as shown in relativity theory by Einstein, can f.e. be bent just like any other of the four dimensions. But if God lives outside of time, he can observe time ...


0

The reason it is written that Jesus was slain before the foundation of the world is to draw our attention to his deity. Jesus is not restricted to time and therefore everything has already been completed throughout eternity. Jesus reveals himself in the flesh for our witness: "Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest ...


1

Nestorians don't believe in two wills and two subjects. Church of the East who has been mislabelled as Nestorians predominantly live in Syria, Iran, and India is a church from the Apostolic time who still exists today. They rejected all councils from Roman Empire region except Nicaea (325) and Constantinople (381). The confusion was caused because Nestorius ...


3

The orthodox (Chalcedonian) position is that Jesus is fully God and fully man, maintaining the distinction of the natures but also the unity of the natures. Within the human nature, theologians often recognize three components: a human mind, human body, and human soul. Apollinarians denied Jesus' full humanity. They affirmed his full divinity, and his human ...


-1

It might be Pelagius recognized that his teaching on salvation is at least in part of matter of human achievement and not all of grace alone is compatible with Antionchene Christology at that time. He did sought refuge with them. And the Antionchene Christians sympathized with him. This is due to, in various forms, the Antiochene theologians overemphasize ...


3

Eutyches did not seem to reject the full humanity of Jesus Christ. But, even though he did not repeat the exact heresy of Apollinarius, he did reduce Christ's humanity to a "drop of wine in the ocean of his deity". Some historian pointed out "probably what Eutyches taught was that, because of the incarnation, the body of Christ was deified in such a way ...



Top 50 recent answers are included