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8

Nothing. The Code of Canon Law states: Every person not yet baptized and only such a person is able to be baptized. (Canon 864; emphasis added) Here's what the Catechism of the Catholic Church has to say about baptism and why it can only be received once: Incorporated into Christ by Baptism, the person baptized is configured to Christ. Baptism ...


8

It is in D&C 68:25–27, a revelation Joseph Smith received in November 1831, that this doctrine is outlined with the age of eight years old specified: 25 And again, inasmuch as parents have children in Zion, or in any of her stakes which are organized, that teach them not to understand the doctrine of repentance, faith in Christ the Son of the living ...


8

No. White is usually recommended, though. It is more practical, since the jumpsuits are also white.


7

The argument from scripture centres firstly around the meaning of the original word which we translate as baptize in english: Strong's Concordance baptizó: to dip, sink Original Word: βαπτίζω Part of Speech: Verb Transliteration: baptizó Phonetic Spelling: (bap-tid'-zo) Short Definition: I dip, submerge, baptize ...


7

A great deal of early Church art showed baptism being done in the nude. This would not have been shocking in the world of the early Church, as many early Christians were slaves. Most slaves in the Roman world owned no more than one garment, and many were given no clothing at all, particularly those who mainly performed hard physical labor. Below are some ...


5

Baptism in the early church was modeled after the Mikvah immersions of Judaism.[1] The Mikvahs were done in the nude.[2] I believe that the baptism of John the Baptist was very similar to the Mikvah immersions.[3] The difference [4] was that (1) All people now had to immersed (not just proselytes to Judaism), (2) this immersion was in the nude and was an ...


5

In the Catholic Church, there are indeed a very few cases in which priests are required to delay, not withhold, the Sacrament of Baptism; illegitimacy is not one of them. Catholicism considers baptism necessary for salvation: The Lord himself affirms that Baptism is necessary for salvation. [citing John 3:5] He also commands his disciples to proclaim ...


5

"That depends." Most FVers define salvation as "the state of being joined to Christ through membership in the Church." If baptism is the event that initiates this, then baptism is the means of salvation defined in this way. From the Federal Vision Joint Statement: We affirm that membership in the one true Christian Church is visible and objective, and ...


4

The Credo-baptists that affirm the Nicene creed, would argue that "baptism for the remission of sins" need not be interpreted as "baptism accomplishes the remission of sins", but more along the lines of "baptism witnesses the remission of sins" eg: ... The phrase, “We confess one baptism for the remission of sins,” does not mean that baptism leads to ...


4

Well, I am not catholic, but there seem to be a question that fascinated and perplexed many of the early Church fathers. Justin Martyr addressed the baptism of Jesus, as a sign that He is manifested as the Christ, a sign for the Church first, and then the world. Now, we know that he did not go to the river because He stood in need of baptism, or of ...


4

For Baptism to be valid requires three things: form, matter and intention. Form refers to the words, which must refer to baptism in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost. LDS baptism meets this criteria. Matter requires the use of water. LDS baptism meets this criteria. The Intention must be to do what the Church does. For this reason baptism in ...


3

Apart from the root meaning of the word Baptizo as 'dip' or 'submerge', there are some instances in the Bible which suggest that the act was not performed by simply sprinkling. Baptism of the Ethiopian Eunuch: And as they were going along the road they came to some water, and the eunuch said, “See, here is water! What prevents me from being ...


3

While not strictly biblical, The Teaching of The Twelve Apostles - arguably the earliest Christian catechism (1) - has this to say. And concerning baptism, baptize this way: Having first said all these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living water. But if you have no living water, baptize into ...


3

The Church teaches that the human propensity to sin is a result of original sin: Following St. Paul, the Church has always taught that the overwhelming misery which oppresses men and their inclination toward evil and death cannot be understood apart from their connection with Adam's sin and the fact that he has transmitted to us a sin with which we are ...


3

Roman Catholicism teaches that water baptism done in the name of the Trinity washes away all kinds of sins.This means that a baptized person is cleansed from all sins. There is 0% sin in the baptized person.They use the following Bible verses to support this teaching: Acts 22:16 (NIV) 16 And now what are you waiting for? Get up, be baptized and ...


3

+1 for a great question! I have not found any solid answer or doctrine of the church that refers to this. Perhaps in the Joseph Smith Papers you could find answers there www.josephsmithpapers.org, but I haven't searched there. What you say is true is for today. One has to be baptized before they receive the priesthood, but if you look in the Book of ...


2

How does one post a reference to the absence of a policy? There is nothing in the manual, so nothing short of publishing the manual in its entirety would suffice? Having baptised women, and being around many others who were baptised, the question has never come up. Full stop. Has some individual gone off the rails and started asking questions they ...


2

Throughout the Gospels, the apostles at times seem absurdly hard-headed and unable to understand what Jesus is telling them. This only continues in Acts, and it seems that the author wants readers to think the apostles slow to understand. But the Holy Spirit had his own ideas for the church, and the apostles were blown along. I don't think the argument about ...


2

I don't think any denominational body has ruled on this; until one does so, it remains a matter of conscience for individual believers. Part of the difficulty is that foster care as a named/organized phenomenon only goes back to the 19th century. That said, there seem to be two main schools of thought: yes and no. End of answer. I'm kidding... but those ...


2

Tertullian comments on this issue, at some length. I confess, I don't quite understand what he is saying---if indeed he is saying anything or just blathering on aimlessly---but I will quote him entirely (source): When, however, the prescript is laid down that “without baptism, salvation is attainable by none” (chiefly on the ground of that declaration ...


2

16 John answered, saying unto them all, I indeed baptize you with water; but there cometh he that is mightier than I, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to unloose: he shall baptize you in the Holy Spirit and in fire: 17 whose fan is in his hand, thoroughly to cleanse his threshing-floor, and to gather the wheat into his garner; but the chaff ...


2

There are two main arguments against it. First, the ICOC leadership explained to me that Matt. 28:19–20 establishes that one must be a “disciple” before one is baptized on the following basis. Matt: 28:19 in the NIV reads, “Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father . . .” Note the italicized “them.” It is said ...


2

John's was a baptism of repentance. It was a cleaning of the body, according to the Law that commanded those who were unclean to "wash with water". This is not the same baptism as that in Christ since the Apostles baptized in the name of Christ those who had already received John's baptism in Acts 19.


2

In a limited sense, yes, some Reformed paedobaptists have supported this: the presentation of slave children for baptism by their masters was practiced and supported in the Presbyterian Church in the USA in the antebellum period. However, I find no evidence that adult slaves were baptized except upon their own conversion (that is, not when the master was ...


2

It can be helpful to consider a marriage at the moment of the exchange of consent—i.e., when it comes into existence—and distinguish that from the marriage as it endures through time. The divisions that you refer to all have to do with whether the necessary conditions are in place in order for the marriage to come into existence in the first place; that is, ...


2

The 2nd Council of Orange was assembled, as the document itself states, to address the controversy between Augustine and Pelagius. In short, the Council was about whether original sin existed in new born or if they were born free from the stain of original sin. If you read the first Canon you can get a better context of what the Council means by Free will. ...


1

What made repentance through baptism unique? Baptism existed prior to John in the conversion of someone to Judaism and in the ordination of priests. Calls for repentance had existed before John particularly before the Babylonian captivity. We have from the dead sea scrolls a picture of ascetics forming a religious community apart from what they considered ...


1

In your example, Susie's second baptism would, as others have already explained, be invalid. Since neither she nor the priest knew about her previous baptism, the invalid baptism would not constitute a sin. Nevertheless, there's a problem for Susie: An invalid baptism does not remit sins. Any mortal sins that she committed after her first (valid) baptism ...


1

This answer is based on the Christian theology of Emanuel Swedenborg (1688-1772), and his spiritual mode of interpreting the Bible. It represents the view on this subject of the "New Church" or "Swedenborgian" denominations that accept Swedenborg's theology. The question is based on Luke 3:16-17: John answered all of them by saying, "I baptize you with ...


1

A couple of points about your last paragraph. First, the recorded commissioning of the disciples to baptize was not at the Resurrection (that is, Easter Day), but at the Ascension some 40 days later. But since the Ascension preceded the day of Pentecost, by the time the 120 were born of the Spirit, the disciples had the commission to baptize. But the answer ...



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