A word used in 1 John and 2 John, and sometimes understood to refer to a future false messiah

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What is the basis for saying that the Antichrist, man of lawlessness, and the beast of Revelation 13 are all the same?

It is generally assumed that the Antichrist, the man of lawlessness, and the beast in Revelation 13 all refer to the same end-time enemy of God. What is the basis for this assumption?