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I've read about a painting at some show that offended some Christians. On that painting there was Jesus Christ swearing at (presumably) the Father.

Now though we know Jesus Christ did not do so yet I've been reading about the true meaning of the Cross (thanks to people here) and I've learnt Christ was made sin on the Cross. Now, sinners they can swear all right and often do.

And even more than that, Christ though did not swear but did complain to the Father. (So maybe the painting deals more with language issues than with religious ones who knows).

Therefore can't see if that painting shall be treated as offensive (I mean shall). Is it offensive?

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closed as primarily opinion-based by bruised reed, JustinY, fredsbend, Flimzy, Affable Geek Jan 26 at 18:58

Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

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The idea that Jesus would wish to do evil is absurd. –  Narnian Aug 30 '12 at 13:57
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@Narnian Why evil? We can see hinored men of working class doing their intricate job while swearing such as plumber can, right? And a cerpenter can, not he? So I can't buy the proposition that swearing is evil –  Alex Aug 30 '12 at 14:02
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From a biblical position, it is not you or I who determine whether or not swearing is evil. God determines what is right and wrong. We can disagree with Him, but we are most certainly not God. He reveals to us that it is wrong, so it's wrong. –  Narnian Aug 30 '12 at 14:36
    
@Alex: hi, have you considered accepting an answer? –  Wikis Sep 12 '12 at 8:37
    
@Alex: thanks, that was quick! –  Wikis Sep 12 '12 at 9:29

3 Answers 3

up vote 8 down vote accepted

Jesus was indeed made sin but was never a sinner. The relevant verse is 2 Corinthians 5:21

God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

From this we learn:

  1. Jesus was without sin (and therefore did not sin on the cross, nor at any other time).
  2. It is essential for our salvation that He was without sin and retained "the righteousness of God". This is because, just as He took our sin, so we take His righteousness so that we can be declared "perfect" and have fellowship with God, both here on Earth and right into heaven. If Jesus had sinned, we would merely have swapped our sin for His, and so been no better off.

more info

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Sin is an offense against God (Catholic Catechism paragraph 1850). In no way could someone reasonably conceive of Jesus as an offense against God. God the Father was pleased with Jesus (Mt 3:17; 17:5)

It's axiomatic that Scripture is the word of God if it is translated and interpreted properly. A translation of 2Cor 5:21 by David H. Stern, a Messianic Jew, has it that “God made this sinless man be a sin offering on our behalf...”.

The first letter of John (1Jn 2:2) refers to Jesus as the atoning sacrifice that takes our sins away, supporting the idea of a sin offering. The New Jerome Biblical Commentary (1990) on 1Jn says "The theology of Christ's death as perfect sin offering by one who is not a sinner...is developed in Heb 9-10."(p990)(Especially Heb 9:26.)

Psalm 22 was prayed for a thousand years before Jesus prayed “My God, my God, why have You abandoned me?” There was no abandonment of the people who prayed in Israel (Deut 4:31; 1Sam 12;22; 1Kings 6:13;Ps 27:9; Ps 37:28; Isa 41:17). (On the other hand, if you forsake Him, He will forsake you (2Chron 15:2)). But the entirety of Psalm 22 attests to Jesus’s faith in God and to all that God has done for His people. Jesus has not abandoned God, and God has not abandoned His son. Jesus suffered and expressed his anguish in a way that could be understood by those who also suffer - yet even as He dies, He leads His people to God.

Possibly the Hebrew/Aramaic concept of "grave" (Sheol) became Greek “Hades” and then eventually “Hell” (the place of the damned). The very old (and the new!) translation of the Apostles’ Creed says Jesus descended into Hell. This would be consistent with Jesus being abandoned and damned as if sinful. However, a practical understanding would be that Jesus was buried. It might not carry deep spiritual overtones, but it proclaims that Jesus was definitely dead. If Jesus was sent to the place of the damned, His release must have been prearranged.

The Jewish custom on the Day of Atonement (Lev 16:6-10) prescribed that one goat would be sacrificed and another released. On the day Christ was crucified, a man named Barabbas was released (Lk 22:19). “Barabbas” means “son of the father”. So on this day of atonement, the Son of the Father was killed, while another “son of the father”, Barabbas, was released into the wilderness. Not two goats here, but two sons of the father. The sinful one was released (representing us?), while the sinless one, a sin offering, was sacrificed.

My conclusion is that Jesus was a sin offering, not sin, loved, not abandoned by God.

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Obviously can't comment too much on the painting since we haven't been given details of its particulars, but going by what you tell us about it, perhaps the artist (giving the benefit of the doubt) was trying to convey some sense of Christ's despair and lostness on the cross.

He had truly been forsaken by the Father, and this was an entirely new experience for Christ. He has only ever known full and complete communion with the Father.

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Alas! I can't find the link to the painting! But it's not so grandiose as you have described, alas again. Hust a stupid caricature it was. I was asking more of curiosity for the theory. –  Alex Aug 30 '12 at 13:37

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