So, I was writing an answer to a question a few minutes ago, and I was going to smugly tell all you Protestants that your "thine is the Kingdom" doxology is so non-Biblical, it's apocryphal.
Well, it is apocryphal, but if anything it's anachronistically apocryphal as no Protestant between the time of the Reformation, whenever that was, and the time of Martin Van Buren's presidency, whenever that was, would have had access to said tidbit of apocryphal lore.
The problem is, it's SOOO nearly verbatim.
...for Yours is the power and the glory for ever. Didache Chapter 8
as opposed to
for thine is the kingdom the power and the glory, now and forever.
Catholic's have a similar doxology said during Mass, in English it's:
...the kingdom the power and the glory are Yours now and forever
and I always console myself when praying with Protestants that I'm not doing anything unTraditional in saying their doxology (any more than I am in saying trespasses instead of debts).
But, how did it come about, and what, if anything does the English version of the Protestant ending to the Lord's Prayer have to do with the Didache?