Tell me more ×
Christianity Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for committed Christians, experts in Christianity and those interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.
up vote 12 down vote favorite

It's only in the King James and the New King James, but why? Jesus' name is all caps:

And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.Matthew 1:21

And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS. Luke 1:31

It's like this no where else in the Bible. The word in the Greek is the same as in other instances of the name. Why? and why only the KJV?

share|improve this question

2 Answers

up vote 1 down vote

Having a closer look at the Greek lexicon and interlinear Bible shows that Iesous is translated to JESUS and to Jesus.

What I have found is that Mathew puts more of an emphasis on Christ the child instead of the event of the birth itself.

It could also very well be that the authors/translators are trying to convey importance by using uppercase letters. Here's a study done by a woman by the name of Suzanne McCarthy. website.

share|improve this answer
When you say "authors," are you talking about the Evangelists Matthew and Luke? Was the original Greek all caps, too? I doubt it. I'm thinking this was a decision by the translators, much like with "LORD" in the Old Testament. – dleyva3 Aug 27 '11 at 7:17
1  
I was thinking translators, I can adjust. – Jonathon Byrd Aug 27 '11 at 7:20
up vote 0 down vote

First some background

In many places in the bible you will see LORD used to refer to God. This is actually referring Jehovah. The KJV authors didn't want to write it all out so they just used LORD instead.

However, I cannot seem to find any indication that this is the case in this passage. It seems to be a typesetting curiosity and nothing more. Its also not repeated in other English translations so its significance is relegated only to the KJV.

share|improve this answer
1  
It's also important to keep in mind that the Hebrew Name of God, the so-called tetragrammaton, was considered too holy to pronounce by Elizabethan-era Christians. The same is true of Jewish tradition today. Accordingly the word LORD is presented as a stand-in, just as the Jews use "adonai" ("my lord") or "hashem" ("the name") today. Along the same lines, look through the New Testament for places where Jesus said, "I am he." That is the Greek translation for the holy Name, and boy-oh-boy, does he stir up trouble with the temple bigshots when he says that. – user116 Aug 28 '11 at 1:17

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.