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In John 17:3 it says that Jesus called the Father the "only true God" and called himself sent by the Father.

Also, in Matthew 4:10, Jesus himself says to:

‘Worship the Lord your God, and serve him only.’`

What is the biblical basis for accepting Jesus as not only divine, but "god in the flesh"?

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possible duplicate of Biblical basis for the doctrine of the Trinity –  Jonathon Byrd Aug 23 '11 at 22:56
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@Jonathon Byrd. This question may be answered without addressing the doctrine of trinity. Binitarianism teaches Jesus is as God, but the Holy Spirit is not a distinct person of the Godhead. A different hermenuetics is required to answer the Trinity question. –  dleyva3 Aug 23 '11 at 23:39

6 Answers 6

up vote 31 down vote accepted

For the quick answer to your question, see John 1:1, 14.

But really, this is a simple matter of the transitive property.

Jesus forgives sin (Mark 2:1-12): It's a non-debated point of doctrine that only God can forgive sins. It's easy for the modern reader to marvel at the miracle without realizing the greater significance of Jesus' statement. Jesus here uses the miracle to refute the accusations of blasphemy (See Psalm 130:4; Isa. 43:25; Dan. 9:9).

Jesus is eternal (John 8:53-59): The Jews weren't about to stone Him because they didn't like what He said, but because He was saying that He is God. I AM is His name. At the very least, Jesus is claiming to be no ordinary man, for how else could He claim to exist before Abraham? Also, see John 1:2; 17:5; Rev. 1:8

Jesus is creator: See John 1:3, Col. 1:16,17, Hebrews 1:2.

Jesus is rightly worshiped: Jesus is worshiped throughout the Gospels (recorded seven times in Matthew alone: 2:11; 8:2; 9:18; 14:33; 15:25; 28:9; 28:17) and it is not recorded that he stopped them. See also Philippians 2:10; Heb 1:6, Rev. 5:12-14, when all of creation and the heavenly angels worship Him.

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Excellent use of scripture throughout. –  Richard Aug 23 '11 at 23:29
    
@dleyva3. Richard also used the Bible, does this mean that the Bible is contradicting itself? –  Lemuel Adane Nov 9 '11 at 19:59
    
John 20 also records Thomas calling Jesus, "My Lord and my God." Messiah's response affirmed this. –  Judah Himango Jun 17 '13 at 6:43
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@LemuelAdane there is no contradiction. Jesus points out in John 10:30 "I and My Father are one." –  JSWilson Feb 10 at 12:21
    
Jesus is someone who was created before all things and who was given authority to forgive sins. That doesn't mean he is God. All the other references aren't Jesus' own words but teachings of gospel writers 40 years later. How did they figure out Jesus was God? And finally where do they explicitly say Jesus is God? –  Gregory Magarshak May 13 at 15:36

I find doctrine of man hard to understand and difficult to assume. However as much evidence we have to prove God is Jesus, we also have as much evidence to prove Jesus is of God (that is created by God) or as John puts it " God sent not the son into the world to condemn but to save it".

We take this and we apply that God came into the world as the son to save it then Jesus might be. This isn't the case.

Also God has 7 spirts, not one. JESUSIS THE HOLY ONE. Not the jealous one, or the vegenful one.

All Gods spirts are in the bosom of the Father. Christ Jesus being the Son and heir to Gods throne, is who God allows to be above him, for it is Gods will for him Jesus to recreate us new.

"Yahweh" or "Jehovah" or "El" or "I am" or many other names the Bible and translations have, not all are God as we see, but yet all are God or are elders who sit beaneth God's throne according to revelations.

We are warned to worship the Father alone, prayer through Christ is how God hears us. We are told by Paul not to worship principalites nor eternal beings But the Father alone.

And once again my confession is this YHWH had a plan from the seed of man and YHWH the only begotten of the father(YHWH). Jesus became Yeshusa and sits at the right hand power of God. Resurrected by the Father victorious over the curse of death. The way to Heaven is always as simple as John the Baptist put it. The repentance of sin for the remission of sin. Christ would not have died in the flesh we could not repent.

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Welcome to C.SE! When you get the chance, please check out our tour and specifically How we are different than other sites. I am not seeing how this post answers the question - an please understand we are not a forum! Posts are expected to answer the question, not "further a discussion." –  Affable Geek Dec 2 '13 at 22:42
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I think his answer is "we don't know it", or at least that's what it looks like after inserting punctuation and paragraph breaks. I don't personally agree with his assessment, but it sounds like an answer, just answering negatively instead of affirmatively. –  David Stratton Dec 3 '13 at 4:57

The Incarnation is in the Christian Scriptures. Here, John and Paul wrote about it against gnosticism and docetism:

The Father prepared a human body for his own Son who is his Word. Hebrews 10:5

The Word who is God as to his nature came into existence in a human body. John 1:1,14

The Word became flesh, assumed its likeness.Hence, Jesus lived human life and died human death without having the original sin:

He partook of the same i.e. flesh( substance of a human body) and blood( weakness associated with the flesh). Hebrews 2:14

Having taken the appearance and nature of a human servant by means of becoming in likeness of men. Philippians 2:7

God, sending his own Son in the likeness of the flesh of sin. Romans 8:28

The Son as the image of the invisible Father and as divine in nature, is invisible per se because as God he is sprrit but he became visible in the flesh ( John 4:24):

He became visible in the substance of a human body. 1 Timothy 3:16

The Eternal Life with the Father became visible. 1 John 1:2

The Son became visble to take away our sins and destroy the work of the Devil. 1 John 3:4-8

HOW THE SON BECAME HUMAN WITHOUT INHERITING ORIGINAL SIN?

The Holy Spirit overshadows Mary i.e. impregnates the Virgin with an original-sin-free human sperm cell.Hence,her fertilized egg is now Jesus, one person with two unmixed but united natures of God and man. ( Matthew 1:23,Luke 1:35)

WHEN? at the right time ( Galatians 4:4), 6 B.C.

WHERE? Bethlehem ( Matthew 2:1).

WHY?

The Son became visble in the flesh to take away our sins and destroy the work of the Devil. (Hebrews 2:14-15, 1 John 3:4-8)

THE POSSIBILITY OF THE INCARNATION

The Incarnation is possible for three logical reasons:

(1) It doesn't make the Son not Almighty but on the contrary it proves that he is Almighty.

(2) It doesn't contradict or violate the Son's immutability.He didn't transform or change into human like in Greek mythologies.

(3)The fact that the Son chose to become flesh proves that it is possible.

He emptied himself of glory-exposure, having taken the morphe of a servant via becoming in likeness of men. Philippians 2:7

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Richard, thanks for noticing it. i edited it already. :) –  Radz Matthew Co Brown Jul 31 '13 at 14:50
    
More like that... If you want to claim those are valid translations, go ahead and add back in the ">", but you'll need to provide the translation used (for validation). –  Richard Jul 31 '13 at 15:27

Perhaps the strongest case for the deity of Messiah is from the gospels, John 20, where Thomas sees the risen Messiah, touches the nail prints in his hands, and finally believes, exclaiming to Messiah,

My Lord, and my God!

Messiah's response to Thomas is telling; he affirms by saying,

You believe only because you've seen. Blessed are those that believe without seeing.

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Philippians 2:5-7 New International Version (NIV)

5 In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:

6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;

7 rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.

This verse clearly shows that Jesus God was manifest in the flesh. Now let us deal with John 17:3.

John 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

the parallel to this verse 1 John 5:20-21

1 Jn 5:20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life. 1Jn 5:21 Little children, keep yourselves from idols. Amen.

John 1:1 is commonly used to prove Jesus is God but then if Jesus is God then according to John 17:3 He is a false God. There is no escaping this fact. A true scholar would then try to reconcile the two apparent contradictions. Therefore we conclude for Christ's sake and the the sake of the Gospel that true God being talked about here is the triune God. Jesus is not excluded here for He is part of the Triune Godhead. if the true God is the Father only the we have a problem. You are to share your opinion as always.

Lets also deal with Mat 14:10 which says:

‘Worship the Lord your God, and serve him only.’`

Again as a scholar you have to compare other scripture with other scriptures spiritual against spiritual.

Rom_1:1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,

Jud_1:1 Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ, and brother of James, to them that are sanctified by God the Father, and preserved in Jesus Christ, and called:

Now where the apostles wrong in their serving of Jesus Christ who is God (John 1:1)? of course not. Once the triune Godhead is established many contradictions can be solved. Just think of a world without this solution...

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The chapter below is titled "The Government of the Promised Son" and seems to answer your question regarding Jesus, the Son, being God.

Isaiah 9:6

"For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulder. And the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."

Also, in prophetic ministry, Hosea speaks out the word of the Lord in 13:4;

"Yet I am the Lord your God ever since the land of Egypt, and you shall know no God but Me. For there is no Savior besides Me."

Yet, in Luke 2:11 God sent an angel to announce to shepherds, "For there is born to you this day in the city of David a Savior, who is Christ the Lord."

Since our Father said to Hosea, "For there is no Savior besides Me.", and He also sent His angel to announce the birth of the a Savior, one has to conclude that the Father and the Son are one.

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@ new wings. If I am a king and I sent my representative to save you. And my representative said to you "I and the king are one." Would it be logical to think that by saying those words it means that I and my representative is the same? Who would be the greater savior is it I the king or my representative? –  Lemuel Adane Nov 9 '11 at 19:46
    
@LemuelAdane: 1. Why would your representative say that, i.e. "I and the king are one"? 2. There is a greater savior and a lesser savior, according to you? Thankfully in the Bible there is nothing so confusing as that. –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Apr 12 at 2:15

protected by David Stratton Dec 3 '13 at 13:21

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