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Assuming the doctrine of original sin is true, how exactly is original sin passed down to the rest of mankind? Was the nature of man changed? If so, what exempted Christ from sin but allowed him to remain 100% man?

Is there a genetic inheritance of some strand of sin DNA?

What does the Bible say about this? What does Church history have to say?

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It's like Cooties! – Affable Geek Apr 30 '12 at 23:39
@AffableGeek ...so you only inherit Original Sin if you're touched by someone with it... – Thomas Shields Apr 30 '12 at 23:41
@DoubtingThomas I think he means "only girls have it"... /flinch – Jas 3.1 Jun 29 '12 at 3:47

3 Answers

up vote 7 down vote

I think that the best answer here is that the Scriptures are not entirely clear on how original sin is transmitted. One thing that we do know (or believe the scriptures to teach) is:

The sin nature is passed on to us from our fathers and not our mothers

  • Sin entered the world through Adam - Romans 5:12 - not Eve who sinned first.
  • More directly taught in Heb 7:9-10
  • Christ Who did not have an earthly father did not have original sin passed to Him.

That is about all that we know (and even this view is heavily disputed.)

Other good questions: Is it genetic (I doubt it) or spiritual (much more likely)? What would happen if we used two women's DNA to clone a new person, if the new creation had a soul would it be sinless?

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And yet in Hebrew thought (and in the OT) one's status was secured by the mother. (I'll try to find a source for that.) Perhaps, then, Christ keeps with that tradition: being born of a woman, he keeps his humanity, but since his father is God, he doesn't inherit the sinfulness of man. – Thomas Shields May 1 '12 at 0:28
I know that this is common in Judaism after Christ to think this way, but I know of no place in scripture that teaches this. Men are consistently seen as the head of their families in Scripture. – Nathan Bunney May 1 '12 at 0:30
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Head of the family, yes. But, for example, one only had to have a Jewish mother to be considered a part of the Hebrew community. I completely agree with you though and while other answers might give interesting theories this is definitely the most biblically accurate. – Thomas Shields May 1 '12 at 0:32
That is what I was going for (biblically accurate) :-) Glad you see that. The idea of one parent bringing a child into the covenant community continues into the NT with Paul's statement in 1 Cor 7:14. – Nathan Bunney May 1 '12 at 0:46
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One can hold that there is indeed Original Sin without assuming the nature of man changed. One might say instead, that the image of God was marred in man, like a coin covered in dross and scored with cuts. But the image remained. The nature - how man was made - did not differ, but his mode - as the Fathers say (I'm leaning heavily on Maximus the Confessor here) changed with the fall. So he operated as a beast though he was a man.

It follows therefore that reproduction - and not only physical reproduction but also parentage through fallen adoptive parents - transmits not merely the effects of previous sins on the bodies and souls of the children and parents, but also re-imprints the patterns and habits which foster the disease.

It then therefore follows, that God had to raise up righteous seed - those who were free from habitual sin and receptive to God's help - and that these, and in particular the Mother of God - could and would be able to accept the Son of God as a child and raise him.

This except gives an idea of the Orthodox position vis a vis 'sinful nature':

...Every created nature is made to live in communion with God. Human nature itself lives in communion with God. Our fall does not consist in becoming something other than human – we have yet to become truly human. Thus St. Paul says: “Man is the glory of God” (1 Cor. 11:7). And St. Irenaeus says, “The glory of God is man fully alive” (Adv. Her. 4.34.5-7). Our becoming truly human would mean the restoration of our true integrity – we would live in accordance with our nature and praise the Lord without ceasing. The natures of all creation ceaselessly praise God by their very existence. Our struggle is to rejoin the song of creation with the whole of our being.

http://fatherstephen.wordpress.com/2012/05/02/all-dogs-go-to-heaven/

So it is not the nature that changes, but whether those hypostases - concrete individuals - live in accordance to how they were made. Original sin constitutes a departure from this way of being at the very outset of human existence that affects the lives of every descendent of Adam and Eve.

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interesting. I'd say man's nature has changed, and since my question was partially based on this assumption, this doesn't completely answer my question, but this is an interesting alternative perspective. +1 – Thomas Shields May 1 '12 at 2:40
The orthodox do hold to original sin, but do not hold that it means man's nature changed. That would indicate that man is essentially different, which itself would make the Mother of God or Christ not human as we are human. – RiverC May 1 '12 at 2:44
Not necessarily. Adam was a human both before and after the fall, and Christ is the second Adam. So Christ could still be human but without the changed, sinful nature of men after Adam. – Thomas Shields May 1 '12 at 3:12
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It is a problem of the perennially incorrect and sloppy usage of the word 'nature' by Western thinkers. If the nature of something changes, it ceases to be what it was before. This is what the nature is. A nature may be capable of operating in different modes - nearly every created thing is adaptable in some way - but this adaptation does not constitute a change in nature. It is also possible that you'd have to argue that fallen men have two natures, the human nature and the fallen nature. This is convolution. – RiverC May 2 '12 at 14:30
You've just sparked an idea for another question (both here and for my theology friends) – Thomas Shields May 2 '12 at 14:32
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up vote 1 down vote

What is original sin?

"Original sin", in Catholic theology, refers to the natural state of deprivation of grace. So man, by nature, is deprived of the state of grace.

Because grace is no longer "natural", it can be obtained only through supernatural means - through God. So even though a man and woman may both be in the state of grace and give birth to a baby, that baby does not inherit their spiritual state, but only their nature.

Therefore, the baby, by nature, is deprived of grace. This is how original sin is transmitted.

Recommended reading: Catechism of Catholic Church on Original Sin

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+1, very interesting angle on it. I would normally say "references references!" but I think the catechism and the fact that this is more of an alternative angle rather than a minority viewpoint both cover it. – Thomas Shields May 3 '12 at 2:52

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