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As noted in the other question, there are two modes of water baptism of which I am familiar--immersion and sprinkling. As far as I know Catholics practice sprinkling along with many Protestant traditions, although many other Protestant traditions practice immersion.

What is the biblical basis for baptism by sprinkling according to those who have a literal interpretation of the Bible?

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I'd say both forms of baptism have the same biblical basis. However, since many parents want to baptize their children as a baby - they sprinkle them in order to not make them panic or drown. The actual question should be: What is the biblical basis for baptizing babies? Babies are being baptized even though they are not intellectually aware of what's happening. Is there a change of the heart and mind towards the savior? – user1121 Dec 30 '11 at 13:41
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@Matt The question of infant baptism has already been asked here: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/1678/…. – Narnian Dec 30 '11 at 13:45
Thanks for the link! I presumed that someone must have asked such a question already. – user1121 Dec 30 '11 at 13:52

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There is no biblical basis for the doctrinal practice of sprinkling to baptize. Most evidence points to the fact that this started around the 3rd century A.D. so a few hundred years after the death of Christ and all of the apostles. In the Old Testement baptismal fonts were referred to as 'seas' and Jesus went straightway out of the water (Matt 3:16) suggesting that He was baptized by immersion. A fair number of people agree that baptism by immersion was the form of baptism used in the bible. The word 'baptism' is itself Greek and comes from the word 'baptizo' and means 'to dip, or to submerge' which again suggests immersion.

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There's a lot of symbolism in the ritual. By being submerged, you are going from where the air is (your current life) to where the air isn't (death) and back to air (rebirth). Thus you are leaving your old life behind you and sins with it. I can understand pouring water but sprinkling doesn't have the same effect for me. – user1054 Dec 30 '11 at 14:13
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While I agree with the doctrinal position this post takes, the question specifically asked what the support for the alternate method is. This would be best answered by somebody presenting a defense of the tradition rather than an opposition view. This is the same issue we've had to curb that comes up for example when Jehovah Witnesses try to post any-Trinity rants on questions that aren't actually about the trinity but clearly have to be answered by somebody who believes in the trinity in order to make sense. Please be careful how you go about answering against doctrines you don't hold. – Caleb Feb 17 '12 at 5:34

Catholics don't baptize by sprinkling water, we pour it over the baptized's head, if there's just a font.

If you read Acts 8:24, you probably think baptism by immersion if that how baptism happens in your tradition, but if baptism is usually performed by pouring, then this is what your minds eye produces:

Philip baptizing a eunuch by Abel de Pujol

Canonically, either is permissible in the Catholic Church.

Sprinkling is biblical, but it's usually connected with blood. But, since we're "baptized into His death", then I think the water of baptism may represent Jesus blood in some way, especially since that was what poured forth from His side when He was pierced on the cross.

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Acts 8:38 And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him Acts 8:39 And when they were come up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught away Philip, that the eunuch saw him no more: and he went on his way rejoicing. – user16659 Feb 13 '12 at 19:58

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