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Is the OT canon currently accepted by Protestants the same as the Jewish scriptures? If not, where and how do they differ?

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marked as duplicate by El'endia Starman Feb 22 '13 at 6:48

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

When you say "protestants" are you referring to post-reformation denominations (specifically excluding Catholicism and Orthodoxym)? As far as I'm aware they use the same Old Testament. – Mark Henderson Aug 24 '11 at 23:12
@Farseeker: I made that distinction to not bring the apocryphal books used by Catholics into the equation. They are usually lumped in between the OT and NT, but sometimes inverspersed in the OT, hence why I wanted to ask this more specific question so that that wouldn't need to be part of the answer. – Caleb Aug 24 '11 at 23:15
Ah, I understand now. – Mark Henderson Aug 24 '11 at 23:29
up vote 4 down vote accepted

The Protestant books of the Old Testament are exactly the same as the Jewish books in the Tanakh. There is absolutely no difference.

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Aren't the books in a different order? And aren't some verses offset somewhat? – Ray Aug 24 '11 at 23:24
Ah, that's a different question! The order mainly depends on the Bible you use, although yes, quite a few Bibles use a different order than the Tanakh. However, the content is strictly the same. – ℝaphink Aug 24 '11 at 23:26
@Ray In Tanach Pentateuch books are grouped together just the same as protestant bibles do. But it groups the rest of the books in two sections "Prophets" and "Writings". The book of prophets is divided into early and later prophets. The Writings are divided into poetic, the five scrolls and the rest of writings. Check wiki for more info. – deps_stats Aug 25 '11 at 12:46
@Ray. They are in a different order. See…. – TRiG Aug 30 '11 at 22:43

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