In debates over slavery in the United States, many abolitionists used the Bible as part of their reasoning for freeing the slaves.
In both the Old & New Testaments there is very clear statements that holy people had slaves.
He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised: and my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant.
II Kings 4:1
Now there cried a certain woman of the wives of the sons of the prophets unto Elisha, saying, Thy servant my husband is dead; and thou knowest that thy servant did fear the Lord: and the creditor is come to take unto him my two sons to be bondmen.
Masters, give unto your servants that which is just and equal; knowing that ye also have a Master in heaven.
But forasmuch as he had not to pay, his lord commanded him to be sold, and his wife, and children, and all that he had, and payment to be made.
How did abolitionists reconcile these two beliefs?