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It is almost as if God made stuff and then realised, hey this is good! Surely an all knowing God would know this, should not have to confirm it by seeing it was good. Why then, the peculiar way of writing it? He saw it was good.

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Flimzy, Narnian, El'endia Starman Aug 12 at 15:44

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There seems to be two questions here: 1) Why did an all-knowing God saw what He created was good when He already knew it was good beforehand? and 2) Why did Moses write Genesis 1:3 the way it is? Having said that, if God can regret what He has done in 1 Samuel 15:11 even with His foreknowledge, I'm sure He can also be pleased with what He has done? –  Zoe Aug 12 at 11:09
    
I once baked a cake. And then I tasted it and it was delicious. Of course, I knew it would be delicious before I baked it, because I know I'm a good cook. Does that mean I can't enjoy my cake? Of course not. Your question seems to be based on some very strange understanding of "good". –  Flimzy Aug 12 at 11:36
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That is reading into the text quite a bit. The passage does not demand at all that God was astonished to find that what He created was good. Peculiarities in speech exist in various languages. Russians refer to their own births in the active tense, as if they brought themselves forth. English uses the passive. The creation account was written in Hebrew, while you're reading it in English (I presume). It behooves us to allow for stylistic differences in other languages without misreading it. –  Narnian Aug 12 at 11:57
    
@Narnian You mean active and passive voice not tense. Good point nonetheless. –  fredsbend the Grinch Aug 14 at 23:33

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Your whole premise is that God didn't have the foreknowledge of the goodness of his creation before he declared it to be good. That isn't a premise supported by scripture. God isn't limited by time.

Ephesians 1:4 ESV ...even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him.

God knew about YOU before he made anything.

Furthermore, the phrase "God saw that it was good" is ambiguous in this regard and doesn't necessarily imply that God didn't already know it'd be good. Like Flimzy said in the comments, if I make a cake that I already know is going to be good, I might still say "This cake is so good!"

So why would this statement be important enough to place in scripture? I think it was so that we knew that it was good--because there are people out there that might get to thinking that the creation is evil.

Romans 15:4 ESV For whatever was written in former days was written for our instruction, that through endurance and through the encouragement of the Scriptures we might have hope.

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+1 for using my cake example. haha –  Flimzy Aug 12 at 17:19

Your premise that God might have been surprised at the fact that his creation was good, is belied by your own statement that God knew everything ahead of time.

In God's plan (which is a mystery to us) in order for things to work as he planned; everything had to start out perfect, so it is not surprising that God would comment that things were ready to start. As far as the use of the term good. when we take a longer look at that what we find is that in the Hebrew the word used was:

ṭôb

tobe

good (as an adjective) in the widest sense; used likewise as a noun, both in the masculine and the feminine, the singular and the plural (good, a good or good thing, a good man or woman; the good, goods or good things, good men or women), also as an adverb (well): - beautiful, best, better, bountiful, cheerful, at ease, X fair (word), (be in) favour, fine, glad, good (deed, -lier, liest, -ly, -ness, -s), graciously, joyful, kindly, kindness, liketh (best), loving, merry, X most, pleasant, + pleaseth, pleasure, precious, prosperity, ready, sweet, wealth, welfare, (be) well ([-favoured]).

In this case it is being used as an adverb modifying the verb was, and what God was really saying was that it was now ready for his plans.

We do not need to read confusion into the Bible, what we need to do is to take it as it is translated, since there is no way that modern languages can adequately reflect the way something was said in an ancient language. as you can see from the above example words can and do have different meanings depending on how they are used, and even then there are multiple meanings in modern language, which would not be true in the ancient language.

This is especially true of American English which has a background based in so many differing languages. The use of a certain word in one culture may have a totally different meaning in another culture.

The word 'fool is a good example since in one culture it means a buffoon, and in another culture it means a unlearned person.

It has been my experience that if we try to understand the use of certain words in the Bible we are going to do some serious research.

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