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When I was young, someone told me that one of the reasons that a virgin had to give birth to Jesus was that sinful nature is inherited through the father, and so in order to be perfect, Jesus had to have a sinless father. Is this conjecture, or an actual statement in the Bible?

The way I see it, it makes sense when likened to the mother having to be Jewish for the offspring to be Jewish. On the other hand, it was Eve who committed the original sin, which doesn't make sense with this concept.

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marked as duplicate by David Stratton Jul 30 at 23:03

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I think that's a real theological doctrine. But my memory of it is so vague that I can't be sure which theological tradition. I have a hunch that it leans toward Catholicism. –  Anonymous Jul 30 at 20:48

1 Answer 1

Rm 5:12 (RSVCE)
Adam and Christ
12 Therefore as sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all men sinned[a]—

Footnotes: a. 5.12 Physical death is a sign of spiritual death; though physical death remains after justification.

In reference to original sin, from this passage, it appears that that is this case.

In the case of Adam and Eve, the command was given to Adam, and God appears on the scene after Adam has eaten of the forbidden tree.

It would be speculative to consider what would have happened if it was only Eve who had eaten the forbidden fruit and not Adam.

As regards the virginal conception and birth of Jesus, please see: What significance, if any, does the doctrine of the eternal virginity of Mary have? and Did Mary have other children?.

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