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Titus 1:7 KJV

For a bishop must be blameless, as the steward of God; not selfwilled, not soon angry, not given to wine, no striker, not given to filthy lucre;

Why wouldn't Bishops have free will?

Per Webster (as pointed out by Matt)

self–willed adjective -ˈwild\ : determined to do what you want even though other people may not want you to do it

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closed as unclear what you're asking by fredsbend, Steve, Flimzy, Affable Geek, Narnian Sep 9 '14 at 14:50

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

Was it so bad that it deserved a -1? :) – The Freemason Jul 24 '14 at 20:03
Well, I think it would have been better to research with some other translations first, so yes IMO. Sorry. – Wikis Jul 24 '14 at 20:04
A) Use a Bible in a language you speak and B) use a dictionary. Either or both of those things would save you from this sort of misunderstanding. – Caleb Jul 24 '14 at 20:50
Just for reference though, we're suggesting that when we read the bible, we should read ALL translations (in your language) to truly understand a passage? That would really stick a fork into inerrancy. – The Freemason Jul 25 '14 at 12:59
with this logic... why is Lucifer = Satan again? – The Freemason Jul 25 '14 at 13:11
up vote 2 down vote accepted

Free-willed and self-willed are not generally the same thing. A free will is free to choose, where as a self-will has already chosen (self). Adam was created with a “free will” in that he was at liberty to determine the target of his faith. Faith in the "word of God" would have dismissed the wiles of the serpent. However, he elected to trust the words of the serpent: “be as gods, knowing good and evil” (Genesis 3:5).

The Greek word “authadēs” (Strongs G829), translated as “self-willed” appears twice in the Bible, both times in reference to those that would not subject to the will of God.

Titus 1:7 For a bishop must be blameless, as the steward of God; not selfwilled, G829 not soon angry, not given to wine, no striker, not given to filthy lucre

2 Peter 2:10 But chiefly them that walk after the flesh in the lust of uncleanness, and despise government. Presumptuous are they, selfwilled, G829 they are not afraid to speak evil of dignities

Paul in Galatians 2:20 makes this distinction:

I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me

Therefore bishops like everyone else have “free will, but they like everyone else are not to be self-willed, but rather subject to God's will!

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You may want to consider adding an explanation of how one can be free willed if they are not selfwilled. Maybe it's a different question in that, "How can you have Freewill when you must subject to the will of God and not be selfwilled?" - highly subjective, however. – The Freemason Aug 7 '14 at 19:21
Perhaps it is more clear now! – Rick Aug 7 '14 at 21:16
By the way your question is valid and not a translation mistake. – Rick Aug 7 '14 at 21:20

This is an issue with the translation. See eg the NIV:

Since an overseer manages God’s household, he must be blameless – not overbearing, not quick-tempered, not given to drunkenness, not violent, not pursuing dishonest gain.

Furthermore, the word the KJV translates as selfwilled can mean:

self-pleasing, self-willed, arrogant

"Self-willed" would possibly be translated nowadays as "selfish".

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selfwilled: "determined to do what you want even though other people may not want you to do it" ( – Matt Gutting Jul 24 '14 at 20:32

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