As a follow-up to my other question: Can people speak in tongues today?, and specifically, this answer:
When a person speaks in tongues (either historically, or today), do they understand what they're saying?
And as a logical extension, I suppose if they do know what they're saying, then asking a person who has (allegedly) spoken in tongues what they said would be a test for the legitimacy of their having spoken in tongues... or no?