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In Matthew 5:9 Jesus states: “Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God." If he sees peacemakers as sons of God, why couldn't he see himself as a peacemaker and therefore a son of God? This may be a good question for those who know the Greek and can differentiate the use of "sons of God" here versus any references where he claims himself to be a/the son of God.

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Caleb May 22 '14 at 8:45

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

I did intend to write "why couldn't he see himself as a peacemaker and therefore a son of God?" It seems quite feasible even after reading mojo's proposed answer. – Darryl Apr 30 '14 at 7:20
If this is a question about the Greek wording, please edit to make it clearly a question just about that and I will migrate it to [hermeneutics.cse]. On the other hand the question as worded doesn't make much sense and it is not clear what you are asking about Christianity. Speculating why somebody (even God) saw something some way or not is not on topic here. The established beliefs and practices of various Christian groups is, but the link between this question and that is not established. Ether way, this needs editing before it can reasonably be answered here. – Caleb May 22 '14 at 8:47

The Greek phrase “son of God” is literally “son of God” (υἱός θεός, huios theos) There's no difference in word choice between what’s said in Matthew 5:9 and, say, John 3:18. The operative difference is in what is translated “the only begotten” (μονογενής, monogenēs) which means “the only one” and is used of only children and the relationship Jesus has to the Father. Being a “son of” is used numerous times to mean a resemblance, but not necessarily offspring. It can also be used to characterize a relationship with one party in subjection to another (e.g. “sons of the prophets”).

Jesus’ statement in Mt 5:9 need not be thought of as equating peacemakers (who resemble God in their desire for peace) with himself (the one and only son of God). I think the meaning to take away from his statement is that being a peacemaker makes you like God.

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The NASB has a foot note that "only one" can be translated as simply meaning "unique", so it still seems that he could have seen himself as a son of God since he was a peacemaker. Further, he may have meant "only one" out of his group, within the city or something else smaller than all people across all time. – Darryl Apr 30 '14 at 7:24
Plus the whole point of the verses around John 3:18 were to say that you needed to pursue the light (good) and hate the darkness (evil), which is apparent when you complete the reading. It seems quite clear that Jesus was saying that believing in him meant believing his teachings. – Darryl Apr 30 '14 at 7:32
@Darryl, I don't see a suggestion in the text of a "group" that Jesus's sonship could be in. What group are you thinking of? – mojo Apr 30 '14 at 14:35

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