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Jesus talks about his father a lot. Is it Yahweh? How do we know that when Jesus says, "My father" he means Yahweh from the Old Testament?

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I got a good clear answer for a reasonable question. The question is NOT obvious, despite the fact that it's what's most christians belief. I mean the verses supporting it are pretty scarce. –  Sharen Eayrs Apr 29 at 6:28
    
It seems that people here think that I am up to no good for questioning things that should be questioned. –  Sharen Eayrs Apr 29 at 6:29
    
And the more I think something should be questioned, the more everyone else think it shouldn't be. I am frustrated here. –  Sharen Eayrs Apr 29 at 6:33
    
Jesus knows the 'Father' but do we know what He means when He uses that term - John 8: 55? Is there a question left if we know that? Using the term Y...h makes yours a loaded question because it belongs in a specific religious context unlike the terms Lord God (Adonay Elohim) that it is derived from. Maybe edit 'Y...h' to 'God' or direct your question to a specific religious group. –  gideon marx Apr 29 at 7:39
    
The problem you seem to be encountering is not so much what you are asking but the phrasing of questions. Using this question for example; as stated 'Who is Jesus father?' In most people's mind that is a contentious question, and even before reading the remainder of what you ask there is a hostile reaction. It could have been better phrased 'Does the Bible say that Yahweh is who Jesus refers to as my father?' Perhaps you might get some pointers on asking questions from "Help". The initial impression is paramount to getting good answers. –  Bye Apr 29 at 12:04

1 Answer 1

Multiple ways, though not all of them are obvious in the English translation.

Jesus refers to himself with 'I AM' in a manner as to make a direct connection to Yahweh from the Old Testament.

“Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” John 8:58

God said to Moses, “I am who I am. This is what you are to say to the Israelites ‘I am has sent me to you.’” Exodus 3:14

http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Names_of_G-d/YHVH/yhvh.html

EDIT Somebody wanted more specificity, so if you read the whole passage Jesus says clearly to the Jews...

Jesus replied, “If I glorify myself,(BN) my glory means nothing. My Father, whom you claim as your God, is the one who glorifies me. John 8:54

Doesn't get much clearer than that. The God of the Jews is Yaweh. Jesus says that the God they claim is his Father.

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Your statement only prove that Jesus is Yahveh ("I AM"), if indeed your interpretation of that verse is correct. The original question asks how we know that Yahveh is being referred to when Jesus says "my father." –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Apr 29 at 4:17
    
Now, I would say that John 8:54 is a good answer. –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Apr 29 at 4:39
    
Ah yes. John 8 is pretty clear. Any other verse? –  Sharen Eayrs Apr 29 at 6:27
    
Your statement, 'the God of the Jews is Y...h' is curiously correct. 'God' with a capital is only ever applied to one entity and that together with 'Lord' is the Divine Name expressed in the four Hebrew letters Y,H,W,H. (Note the absence of vowels.) The root is 'to be' therefore 'eternal' and 'creator' therefore 'father'. God is 'Eternal Father' of Jesus and all Jews. –  gideon marx Apr 29 at 7:55
    
Those capital letter God and "the LORD" is not in the original language. The correct way to transliterate YHWH would be YHWH if it's a proper name. It could also be translated. In any case, "the LORD" is not a correct translation or transliteration. Saying "the LORD" would imply Ha Eloah, or Ha Elohim, or Ha Adonai, which is simply not what the original language is. This may cause confusion for our atheist brothers that think ancient judaism could be polytheistic. –  Sharen Eayrs Apr 30 at 6:28

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