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Understanding Catholic Church has its funds in Judaism, which is a male based religion, how does Catholic Church justify the fact that women cannot admistrate religious rites?

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I think this is probably too big a question to get a full answer ("If you can imagine a book written on the subject..."). Answers will need to consider Gaudum et Spes, Lumen Gentium, Redemptoris Mater, Mulieris Dignitatem and Apostolicam Actuositatem. Not to mention Ordinatio Sacerdotalis. –  Andrew Leach Apr 28 at 22:59
Oh, and Inter Insigniores, Christifideles laici, and Presbyterorum ordinis. –  Andrew Leach Apr 28 at 23:19
See 2Kings 22:14. Judaism is not male based. –  ties asvWil Jun 24 at 22:14

2 Answers 2

up vote 4 down vote accepted

Short answer:

Jesus did not ordain women.

Long Answer:

It is because of Christ's example in sacred scripture and because of Apostolic Tradition (Tradition with a capital 'T'). The Church does not consider herself authorized to change this. Christ could have ordained women to priesthood. He had the power to do that and he chose not to. Christ chose those whom he willedMk 3:13-14; Jn 6:70, and he did so in union with the Father, through the Holy SpiritActs 1:2, after having spent the night in prayerLk 6:12. These chosen men were the one who were present at the institution of the Priesthood in the Upper Room on Holy Thursday.src1 src2 src3

There were women priests in other religion. So it wold not be a scandal if he did ordain women. Also priests are at mass in Persona Christi, so it would be proper for them to resemble Christ in body too.

Also remember that the perfect non-divine human being, the mother of God was not a priest.

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Every sacrament requires the proper matter and form. For example, baptism needs water and the form "I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. Amen." The sacrament of Holy Communion requires unleavened bread and the form "This is my body… etc."

The same goes for the sacrament of Holy Orders, whose matter is a male. One cannot ordain a female just like one cannot baptize with motor oil or consecrate a dorito chip.

Here's how St. Thomas Aquinas explains it, in answering the question "Whether the female sex is an impediment to receiving Orders?":

Certain things are required in the recipient of a sacrament as being requisite for the validity of the sacrament, and if such things be lacking, one can receive neither the sacrament nor the reality of the sacrament. Other things, however, are required, not for the validity of the sacrament, but for its lawfulness, as being congruous to the sacrament; and without these one receives the sacrament, but not the reality of the sacrament. Accordingly we must say that the male sex is required for receiving Orders not only in the second, but also in the first way. Wherefore even though a woman were made the object of all that is done in conferring Orders, she would not receive Orders, for since a sacrament is a sign, not only the thing, but the signification of the thing, is required in all sacramental actions; thus it was stated above (Question [32], Article [2]) that in Extreme Unction it is necessary to have a sick man, in order to signify the need of healing. Accordingly, since it is not possible in the female sex to signify eminence of degree, for a woman is in the state of subjection, it follows that she cannot receive the sacrament of Order. Some, however, have asserted that the male sex is necessary for the lawfulness and not for the validity of the sacrament, because even in the Decretals (cap. Mulieres dist. 32; cap. Diaconissam, 27, qu. i) mention is made of deaconesses and priestesses. But deaconess there denotes a woman who shares in some act of a deacon, namely who reads the homilies in the Church; and priestess [presbytera] means a widow, for the word "presbyter" means elder.

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