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John 5:26 New International Version

For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself.

How do trinitarians explain the fact that the Father has granted life to the Son?

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1)Trinitarians admit with alacrity that the Father begot the Son. 2) "granted the Son also to have life in himself" i.e., in the father. There is no contradiction with this verse. –  Matthew Moisen Mar 16 at 9:37
    
Well my question is if Jesus is granted life then he could not have existed from eternity past could He? and in what sense is Jesus begotten –  Tony Jays Mar 16 at 9:44
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Oh, sorry; I misinterpreted you. At least in the Orthodox Tradition, they say that the Son was Begotten by the Father "before the Ages". Ages here means time -- The Father invented Time, but before he did so, he begot the Son. Without the use of time there is no way to judge whether one came after or before. The Son being begotten before Time means that he existed from eternity past. On the other hand, the Arians used to chant "There was a time when he was not", using precisely the same logic you are using, but using different verses (which pose a real contradiction, unlike this verse) –  Matthew Moisen Mar 16 at 9:48
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Aristole was wrong about many things. I am 100% human and also 100% male. His argument only works if the categories are opposed to each other, but they aren't. –  curiousdannii Mar 16 at 23:17
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If in the human hypostasis (such as yourself) there exists the hypostatic union of spirit, soul, and flesh/ body (cp. 1 Thes. 5:23), why suppose that in the divine person of Jesus Christ there cannot exist the hypostatic union of spirit, soul, and flesh/ body? The only difference is that, in the divine person of Jesus Christ, the divine spirit (i.e., God/ deity) is joined to the human spirit, along with the soul and body. Does the union of the divine spirit to the human spirit seem a contradiction or impossible to you? Then you're at a loss for explaining how the H.S. dwells in Christians. –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Mar 18 at 3:43
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3 Answers 3

The "begetting" here is understood in an eternal sense, and is not a matter of being made or created. The creeds phrase it as eternally begetting (fathering), or pretemporal begetting, or an eternal proceeding from. And they are explicit in that it is not a matter of being made or created.

From the Athanasian Creed,

The Son is of the Father alone; not made, nor created, but begotten.

And,

So there is One Father, not Three Fathers; one Son, not Three Sons; One Holy Ghost, not Three Holy Ghosts. And in this Trinity none is afore or after Other, None is greater or less than Another, but the whole Three Persons are Co-eternal together, and Co-equal.

And from the Nicene Creed,

And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only begotten Son of God, and born of the Father before all ages. (God of God) light of light, true God of true God. Begotten not made, consubstantial to the Father, by whom all things were made.

The Son proceeds from The Father and is therefore of the same eternal substance. This differs from created entities, which are different in "substance" from their creator. The Father is the eternal cause of the Son; but the Son is not created or a distinct substance from the Father. The Father and the Son, with the Holy Spirit, are one in being.

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What does begotten mean? They have their own lexicon I guess b/c it has a clear meaning i.e. to generate, bring into existence etc. –  user1361315 Mar 17 at 15:33
    
@user1361315 Does my edit help? –  svidgen Mar 17 at 15:58
    
If they are of the same essence, co-equal etc. Then when Jesus (man and God) dies on the cross, so to does the Father and the Holy Ghost right? So was the world without a God in that time? –  user1361315 Mar 18 at 15:18
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You and I are of the same essence. We are called human. That doesn't mean if I die you do too. –  user5197 Mar 19 at 7:07
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All Scripture is quoted from the New Revised King James Version

you are confusing the material with the immaterial. The Trinity (God) is Deity. And in :

John 5:26 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;

What Jesus is saying is that the father has given *his physical body*life within itself. That is why Jesus said:

John 10:17 and 18

Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

Jesus life, death, and resurrection, were all commanded by God the father.

Where your confusion comes in is that you unconsciously attribute materialistic properties to God. We must understand that God is something beyond the intelligence of man.

Isaiah 55:9 For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.

We will never completely know God until we meet him face to face.

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I would read it as "Has authorised the Son to have life in Himself"....Whilst the Persons of the Holy Trinity are each God in essence, yet they are separate Persons with various things they do. So the Father sent the Son and the Son took to Himself a human nature (thus Jesus Christ is two natures in one person). But it was not the Father or the Holy Spirit Who took on a human nature, only the Son. We might say that in the Trinity, the Father authorised the Son to become a man and in perfect eternal harmony, the three agreed that it should be so. Likewise that the Father should send the Son and after the resurrection of the Lord, that they should send the Holy Spirit at Pentecost to indwell believers. Also see Matthew Henry's comments about this.

For a further explanantion of the Trinity pls see What is the doctrine of the Trinity?

Hth

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