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I read that Leslie Dixon Weatherhead, an English Christian theologian, made every effort to present Mary as a very pure, sincere, immature, young maiden who simply had interpreted the Angel's Annunciation as a divine instruction to stay for three months with her cousin's husband, Zechariah, and that was when Jesus was conceived.

Then, excluding the case that Leslie was either a crazy man or an illiterate man, which doesn't seem true, on which parts in the gospels is Weatherhead's argument about Mary, mother of Jesus, founded?

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It would seem that the proper source here would be to read Weatherhead's explanation, then evaluate it from that standpoint. In my opinion, his suggestion is utter nonsense and is entirely without biblical foundation. But I don't know how he claims to find support for his position. –  Scott Severance Jan 23 at 17:49
Downvoted because there is no reference to Weatherhead's writings, and it appears that his opinion has little to do with Christianity. –  disciple Jun 5 at 22:34

1 Answer 1

Rev Dr Leslie Weatherhead (1893-1976) was a Methodist minister and a very popular preacher in London from the 1930's to the 1960's, in a liberal Protestant tradition. He was also a prolific and popular author.

There is a new and helpful article on Wikipedia (posted in September 2014) about Leslie Weatherhead. It has a full bibliography.

Weatherhead's speculative theory about the conception of Jesus Christ was published in his book "The Christian Agnostic", (published in London in 1965, and also in the Abingdon Classics series) based on his rather loose interpretation of the Gospel of Luke, chapters 1 and 2.

Weatherhead has a small and ageing following in the UK, not significant in the leadership of the Methodist Church.

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This doesn't provide any information relevant to the question. –  curiousdannii Oct 7 at 0:07
@curiousdannii - wha?? did we read the same post? –  bruised reed Oct 7 at 6:31
The first, second and fourth paragraphs are purely biographical. The only relevant thing is "based on his rather loose interpretation of the Gospel of Luke, chapters 1 and 2." which is pretty obvious considering the question. –  curiousdannii Oct 7 at 7:41

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