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Since Christianity stems from Judaism did the Jews believe that their Messiah and their God would be the same person as described in the Trinity?

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Interesting question, my guess is Judaism probably did not have any doctrines similar to the trinity because Jesus came to reveal the father (Matthew 11:27) and he says that the Spirit reveals Him (Christ) to us in us (John 16:13-15). –  Jason Jan 12 at 20:42
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This question appears to be off-topic because it is about Jewish beliefs. –  David Stratton Jan 13 at 1:28
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The Trinity is a Christian belief and Judaism and Christianity share many of the same doctrinal foundations including on the nature of God. –  Nelson Jan 13 at 1:36
    
My first thought was Simeon in Luke 2, but it only says that he was waiting for the Messiah, not that he knew the Messiah would be God himself. Trinitarian Christians obviously see verses like Ps 9:6 "For a child is born to us ... he will be called ... Mighty God" as showing that the Messiah would be God. I'd be interested to hear how verses like that are interpreted in Judaism. Would it be a good idea to add that and some other verses to the question? –  curiousdannii Jan 13 at 3:56
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"Christian theology" before the birth of Jesus is nonsensical! –  curiousdannii Jan 15 at 0:12
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closed as off-topic by H3br3wHamm3r81, David Stratton, Mawia, Narnian, Affable Geek Jan 14 at 18:29

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1 Answer

No, neither the Jews (those left after the northern exile) nor the entirety of the Hebrews (all those of the faith before the northern exile) held to any concept of a trinity. The ancient egyptians had a trinity, but not the Hebrews. In fact, they held to a strict monotheism as taught by scripture.

Deuteronomy 6:4 The Scriptures 1998+ (4) Hear, O Yisra’el: יהוה our Elohim, יהוה is one!

Fortunately for the purposes of our discussion, the verse of the translation above is a word for word and in the same order as that of the original Hebrew. This was pretty much the creed of the faithful and the creed that our Messiah Yahushua re-iterated in Mark 12:29. The above is extremely important due to the grammatical construction of the sentence in Hebrew. For those of you who don't know, in order to express something as singular, you place the numerical designation after the noun. But in order to express something as plural, you place the numerical designation before the noun. In English we always place the numerical designation before the noun so it's not as obvious to us when we read it. But in Hebrew if you wanted to say "3 o'clock" you would say "hour three". It's the third hour, but it's still a singular hour. However, if you wanted to say "three hours" then you would simply say "three hours" to indicate plurality.

This brings us back to the verse above. Here we clearly see that the numerical designation is AFTER Yahuweh (aka God). Take a look at the original Hebrew for further verification. We can clearly see how the Hebrews, then the Jews, and then the Christians (at least up until the Catholic councils) would view Yahuweh (aka God) as one as opposed to seeing Yahuweh (aka God) as three as is stated in the theory of the trinity.

And also, no, the Hebrews and then just the Jews (after the northern exile) would not have thought of Yahuweh (aka God) as becoming human and dieing. The scriptures clearly indicate that Yahuweh is eternal and cannot die (Deuteronomy 23:40, Psalm 90:2, Psalm 102:27) and the Hebrews would also have read many times as they went over and over the Torah, how Yahuweh is not a man nor a son of man:

Numbers 23:19 The Scriptures 1998+ (19) “El is not a man, to lie; nor a son of man, to repent! Has He said, and would He not do it; or spoken, and would not confirm it?

So to answer your question directly, no, the Hebrews, then the Jews (after the northern exile), and then the early Christians until the Catholic councils would not have imagined that Yahuweh (aka God) would come to earth as the Messiah.

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Appreciate your answer. Learnt a lot. Not sure about your use of Hebrews and Jews. Could you clarify that. The term Hebrew was used well after the exile. –  gideon marx Jan 13 at 10:50
    
Absolutely........The first time the word "Hebrew" is used is in Genesis 14:13 referring to Abram, but is a term used to refer to the entire lineage of the faithful from Adam on down. It's reported that the term Hebrew comes from one of Abraham's grandfathers "Eber" (Genesis 10:25), but is used to refer to the entirety of Yahuweh's people. The term Jew comes from "Judah" and in the first usage refers to the descendents of Judah (one of the twelve sons of Joseph/Israel) or the tribe of Judah. (continued.......) –  The Duke Of Marshall Jan 13 at 14:26
    
The second usage comes from after the physical nation of Israel was split into a northern and southern kingdom with the Northern Kingdom referred to as Ephraim (or Israel) and the Southern Kingdom referred to as Judah (or Judea). And the third usage of the term "Jew" is used to refer to adherents of the religion of "Judaism" which started with those who rejected the Messiah. Many within Christianity incorrectly associate everyone in the old testament as "Jews", but that is clearly incorrect as it is impossible. (continued...........) –  The Duke Of Marshall Jan 13 at 14:26
    
However, the most common usage of the term "Jew" in the scriptures is the second usage referring to someone who is of, or descended from, the Southern Kingdom (Judah). But one summary explanation that I have found useful is to think of it like this: Just as all men are human, not all humans are men. In the same way, all Jews are Hebrew, but not all Hebrews are Jews. –  The Duke Of Marshall Jan 13 at 14:27
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