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How can it be proved that there has been no "man made" corruption of the bible given the many documented, translations, interpretations, and "editings" of the text by subsequent emperors, kings, popes etc....

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closed as primarily opinion-based by Flimzy, fredsbend, David Jan 6 '15 at 13:09

Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

It can't. And I don't think creationists alone grapple with this issue. Welcome to the site, by the way. Maybe take a moment to revise your question so it is a little clearer and more objective. (A few possible revisions that come to mind, however, have already been asked here. Try looking through the tags to see if your question is already asked and answered.) – Matt Jan 4 '14 at 4:06
The response is usually, "God's word has no errors. Our translations of the text may. What is now is right unless someone finds a mistake or missed addition, which then the newest is right." – The Freemason Jan 5 '14 at 17:19
This question appears to be off-topic because it is essentially a "convince me" question. – Flimzy Jan 6 '15 at 0:15

To answer your question NO you will never find proof of the veracity of any of God's word.

Your question could just as well ask is there proof that God is real, or that Jesus death paid for our sins, or for proof of any thesis in Christianity; and the answer would always be no.

That same question can be asked about a myriad of things concerning Christianity and the answer would still be no.

Christianity and faith are synonymous. A thing that is proven is no longer faith it then becomes knowledge.

The following Scriptures help to explain faith:

Romans 3:25 KJV

Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;

Romans 5:2 KJV

By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.

1st Corinthians 15:14 KJV

And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain.

1st Corinthians 15:17 KJV

And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.

2nd Corinthians 4:18 KJV

While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.

The deeper question here is why does God not prove that the Bible is the word of God and that Jesus death on the cross paid our sin debt in full?

That question can be answered by many Scriptures here are three which I find applicable:

Hebrews 11:1 KJV

Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.

John 3:16 and 17 KJV

16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.

Back to the question of why God doesn't just prove all of this?

If there were proof then God would be taking away what we know as choice since those things would no longer be debatable, which in turn means that we would no longer have a free will.

If God wanted us to be automatons he would not have given us a choice to begin with. God does not just want our obedience; he wants us to obey out of love, and a desire to please him. Consider the following two Scriptures:

1st John 4:8 and 16 KJV

8 He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.

16 And we have known and believed the love that God hath to us. God is love; and he that dwelleth in love dwelleth in God, and God in him.

We cannot accept God but not accept his love, but many people accept his love but do not accept him.

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I have not voted your question either up or down. I cannot in good conscience vote either way, since I have encountered that question many times before in various forms, and feel that it is asked more out of innocence than maliciousness. – BYE Jan 4 '14 at 14:14

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