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I know that early in the formation of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, polygamy was common. It's my understanding that it was an everlasting command from God to Joseph Smith.

Doctrine & Covenants 132

4 For behold, I reveal unto you a new and an everlasting covenant; and if ye abide not that covenant, then are ye damned; for no one can reject this covenant and be permitted to enter into my glory.

If the covenant is everlasting, why did the Mormons stop practicing polygamy?

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If he never changes, why was the Levitical law done away with? Perhaps the phrase "never changes" means something different than what you imply here. – JustinY Sep 8 '11 at 13:59
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Possibly so, but Jesus said in Matthew 5:17 that he did not come to abolish the Law but to fulfill it. Polygamy may be an excellent and related example of this type of changing laws, but that's why I'm asking. I want to understand this better. – Richard Sep 8 '11 at 14:05
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This should technically be polygyny, a more specific subset of polygamy. Polyandry was never allowed in the church. – tjameson Sep 8 '11 at 15:59
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You are correct, it would technically be polygyny. But that's what most people think of when they say "polygamy". Polyandry and Polyamoury isn't really on people's radars. (I'll leave as polygamy to satisfy the Google crowd) ;) Thanks for the mention! – Richard Sep 8 '11 at 16:03
They stopped practicing polygamy because they were receiving less customers. – RandomDuck.NET Apr 25 at 3:10

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If you look further through the chapter, every place where the words "everlasting covenant" are used, it's speaking of marriage in general, and not specifically of plural marriage. The idea is that marriage itself is an everlasting covenant, not "until death do you part," but for all eternity.

As for why the practice of plural marriage was discontinued, an explanation can be found here, given directly by Wilford Woodruff, the fourth President of the Church, under whose leadership the practice was ended.

The first part is a formal announcement to the world that the Mormons are done with polygamy; the second part, given some time later, was an explanation for church members of the rationale behind it. He explains that the Lord revealed to him that political opposition would end up driving the church underground and cause the temples to be closed by force. This would put an end to the work therein, which the LDS regard as sacred and of great importance. Also, it would have forced an end to the practice of plural marriage as understood by the LDS anyway, as plural marriages were required to be performed in the temple. In order to preserve the rest of the work, which the Lord saw as more important than continuing the practice of plural marriage, he instructed the church to stop practicing plural marriage and comply with the laws of the land.

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It's very important to note that the LDS faith takes this as a revelation, not a submission to civil authority. The gospel is meant to go to all the world, and this would not be possible given that many nations also do not allow polygyny. – tjameson Sep 8 '11 at 15:58
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I think in the interests of fairness at least some mention should be made of the US acts banning polygamy that were enacted at around the same time. – DJClayworth Sep 8 '11 at 16:14
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@DJClayworth - True. I would assume that this changing of laws is what lead President Woodruff to inquire about this, just like the second declaration was inspired by national events. – tjameson Sep 8 '11 at 16:25
Thank you. I maybe misinformed. TV documenterys indicate presenly some palygamy among mormons and resently the arrest of a mormon church leader and his many wives would suggest the tradition is still common. One such documentary shows a one man presently with 5 wives in one house. But yes i see your point concerning US law enforced. – Jeezuzz Apr 25 at 2:50
@Jeezuzz: I've converted your post to a comment, as it's not actually an answer to the question. I believe the "Mormon church leader" would have been Warren Jeffs, the leader of a polygamy cult descended from a group that actually separated itself from the Mormon church long ago. The Latter-Day Saints have not practiced polygamy for well over 100 years, and when they find anyone among them practicing it today, that's considered grounds for excommunication. – Mason Wheeler♦ Apr 25 at 4:06
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This is more of an addendum to Mason's answer, but is too long to fit in a comment.

I agree that the logical interpretation of "everlasting" is usually "something which persists forever", but that isn't always the case.

For example, we general consider the terms "eternal" and "endless" to be synonymous with "everlasting". The Doctrine and Covenants (part of the LDS canon) gives an alternate interpretation of these words that doesn't mean "unending" (D&C 19:10-12):

10 For, behold, the mystery of godliness, how great is it! For, behold, I am endless, and the punishment which is given from my hand is endless punishment, for Endless is my name. Wherefore—

11 Eternal punishment is God’s punishment.

12 Endless punishment is God’s punishment.

From this we can see that "Eternal" and "Endless" are variations of God's name. It's reasonable to extend this to include "Everlasting" as well.

With this in mind an "everlasting covenant" doesn't necessarily mean "a covenant which lasts forever", but rather "a covenant that is made with God".

The question of "why did Mormons stop practicing polygamy" is definitely an interesting one, but I just wanted to point out that an "everlasting covenant" can mean something other than "a covenant which never ends".

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I'm not sure this is accurate. I think that the matter is better covered by the first paragraph of Mason's answer. – compman Oct 26 '11 at 2:53

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