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Transsexuality is a reality since the days of old but newly discovered as fact in the realm of science.

Transsexuality is different from homosexuality in that transgenders believes that they were born females with a birth defect of having a male's body while homosexuals view themselves as it is, males attracted to other males.

The latter seems absurd because a male will never be attracted to a male because a male only gets attracted to females.

Based on this fact, there must exists a certain abnormality in the person who got attracted with the so called" same sex".

The question asked is that because transsexuality is seemed to be innate based on empirical evidence then is there a Scriptural message about this?

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great question! ;) –  Radz Matthew Co Brown Nov 14 '13 at 15:12
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Radz has a nice answer. It is hard to find transsexualism in the Bible as there isn't a single one to one relationship between the translation / transliteration. For example, you could assume Eunuch where transsexual, however they were mostly considered neither homosexual nor heterosexual. Today, we would probably consider them homosexual and most likely transsexual. They were trusted to guard women as they had no penis - typically, as sometimes they had their genitals but were still considered eunuch (more then likely just homosexuals). –  The Freemason Nov 14 '13 at 16:31
    
male will never be attracted to a male? I realize this is your opinion, but it's an easily refuted one... –  Flimzy Nov 14 '13 at 16:35
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@Flimzy I agree with your assertion. I do not truly understand homosexuality or transsexuality. Therefore I should not attempt to understand the differences between "a woman trapped in a man's body" and "a man who is aroused by other men" as the OP is attempting to define. –  The Freemason Nov 14 '13 at 16:40
    
People can find a Biblical basis for anything if they look hard enough and interpret Scripture in ways that suit their agenda. I think this is pretty much either too broad or opinion-based. See To what extent does this Stacks Exchange allow “What is the biblical basis of…?” type questions? –  David Stratton Nov 15 '13 at 1:17
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3 Answers

up vote 2 down vote accepted

Transsexualism is a phenomenon experienced by individuals who transition between either of the two major sexes, male and female, not due to social pressures or mental disorders, but due to an acute feeling of fundamental discontent with the sex to which they have been assigned (gender dysphoria).

If we'll handle the Scripture correctly as 1 Timothy 2:15 says there seems to be a biblical basis for Transsexuality as follows:

Which of the following logical premises with logical conclusions are the real facts?

Premise 1: Those with male’s body who desires to have sex with the same person having a male’s body because he felt that he’s a “she” is an obvious abnormality.

Premise 2: The mind of those sort of people are the one having abnormality.

Conclusion: Psychological treatment is a must for those people to make them normal.

OR

Premise 1: Those with male’s body who desires to have sex with the same person having a male’s body because he felt that he’s a “she” is an obvious abnormality.

Premise 2: The body per se of those sort of people are the one which is not normal.

Conclusion: Medical treatment is a must for those people to make them normal.

Today, the former is dismissed in modern psychology and the latter is supported by modern science.

Based on this current fact, then we can conclude that gender not sex is the categorical prohibition in the Leviticus Law.

Premise 1: Leviticus Law is applied only to males having sexual intercourse with males ( Leviticus )

Premise 2: Leviticus Law against male-male intercourse

Premise 3: People who are natural born eunuchs aren’t males but females in gender (i.e. transgender).

Conclusion: Leviticus Law is not against Eunuchs (i.e. transgender women) but only against men to men sexual intercourse.

In fact, the Leviticus Law is not merely against men to men sexual intercourse, it is also against the setting of the action which is Idolatry.

This truth leads us with non-contradictory revelations in the rest of the Scriptures:

Premise 1: Chief Eunuch makes love with Daniel ( Daniel 1:9 )

Premise 2: Daniel is handsome ( Daniel 1:4 )

Conclusion: Chief Eunuch is in the category of Eunuch’s that are “born that way” ( Matthew 19:12). Hence, Daniel did not violate the Leviticus Law.

Roman males who practice intercourse with males in a pagan religious setting is against nature (against expected behavior in society i.e. culture). – Romans 1:26-27

This culture is the Jewish culture which also Paul authoritatively adopts.

--1 Corinthians 6:9

Arsenoikoites- males who

1) penetrates boys or girls (in a pagan religious setting outside Christian marriage)

2) rapes

3) murders

4) are extortionist

Malakoi- soft people (heterosexual males who act flimsy not necessarily about someone's sexual orientation)

Jude 1:6 shows that angels (in a human male’s form) had sexual intercourse with humans (women) and this is described as “fornication and going after strange flesh” just as Sodom and Gomorrah’s sin which is intended rape of the angels ( in a human male’s form).

Premise 1: Angels impregnates women (Genesis 6)

Premise 2: Angels to women intercourse is “fornication” and “going after strange flesh” (Jude 1:6-7 KJV)

Conclusion: The “going after strange flesh” does not mean “homosexual intercourse” because the context of the text speaks of Angel (in male’s form) had sex with females. The “going after the strange flesh” is the “angel to women intercourse”. In this case, fallen angels are the one’s who victims.

Premise 1: Men in Sodom and Gomorrah want to rape the Angels ()

Premise 2: Men to Angels (in male’s form) intercourse is “fornication” and “going after strange flesh” (Jude 1:6-7 KJV)

Conclusion: The “going after strange flesh” does not mean “homosexual intercourse” because the context of the text speaks of men who want to rape the angels in male’s form. The “going after the strange flesh” is the “angel to men intercourse” which did not happen but was only an intended rape by the said people. In this case, good angels are the victim. How do we know this? It’s in the verse per se “ just as …in like manner…”( identifying the sin in Genesis as identical to the sin in Genesis).

Strange flesh indeed because Angels are involved!

Cause(s) of Transexualism

1)Natural Cause: Biological ( post-adamic state)

2)Environmental Cause: Nurture ( of biological dispositions)

Scientific explanation of the cause:

Premise 1: Biological cause: Hormonal/ neurological (natural cause)

Premise 2: Psychological cause: natural cause inevitably nurtured the mind to specific gender ( man/woman)

Conslusion: Transexualism

Neuroscience studies of transsexuals in recent years are increasingly suggesting that transsexuality is a biological phenomenon rather than a purely psychological one, as transsexuals' brain structures tend to have a strong resemblance to the brains of their identified gender, even before beginning sex reassignment therapy.

http://jcem.endojournals.org...

http://www.newscientist.com...

Biblical Explanation of the cause:

Premise 1: God created each and every one of us in the womb ( Psalm 139:13)

Premise 2: This sort of creation is in line with the effects of sin because it is within the realm of Post-Adamic fall ( Genesis 3, Romans 8:22)

Premise 3: People who get attracted to same sex are not the same in gender. ( Transsexualism)

Premise 4: There are only two sexes which is also two genders per se( man/woman) –Genesis 1:26-27)

Conclusion: Transsexualism is a medical condition because it is a birth defect per se.

IF Jesus' words in Matthew 19:12 about " eunuchs who were born that way" means the same thing as in his disciple's contemporary Philo in the 1st century and Christians in the 2nd and 4th centuries then it means that the case is resolved because these eunuchs are explicitly attracted to same sex.

Source:

Philo, On Joseph, XII. 58-60.

Clement of Alexandria, The Stromata, III. I. --NOTE that this only proves that homosexual attraction is present in the 2nd century but having the greater context both from the 1st and 4th century, we found out that homosexual attraction is not a sin and hence, saints ( i.e. christians) are accepted in the early church as the following historical evidence evinced:

Gregory of Nazianzus, Oration 37. XVI -XVII.

Decrees of the Ecumenical Councils, Council of Nicea, Canon 1, AD 325.

The New Testament acknowledges marriage as the sole authority of sexual unions. Outside marrige, no sexual relations is allowed.

--Romans 1:26-27 and 1 Corinthians 6:9 both forbids homosexual intercourse within the Religious setting of Temple worship of false deities. Hence, homosexual relations are allowed within Christian setting.

-- Romans 1:31 and 2 Timothy 3:3 doesn't talk about homosexual intercourse at all. The Greek word "astorgos" denotes "without family love ( From a- without storge- family love, natural affection to kindred).

"Against the fifth commandment: Disobedient to parents, andwithout natural affection - astorgous, that is parents unkind and cruel to their children. Thus, when duty fails on one side, it commonly fails on the other. Disobedient children are justly punished with unnatural parents; and, on the contrary, unnatural parents with disobedient children." - Matthew Henry Commentary Online

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To directly answer your question no and here's why.

We need to analyze the union between a man and a woman to arrive at its purpose. I quote this article from the Insight book.

*"The union of a man and a woman as husband and wife according to the standard set out by God. Marriage is a divine institution, authorized and established by Jehovah in Eden. Marriage brings into being the family unit, the family circle. Its basic purpose was the reproducing of the members of the human family, to bring into existence more creatures of the human kind. Jehovah the Creator made male and female and ordained marriage as the proper arrangement for the multiplication of the human race. (Ge 1:27, 28) The first human wedding was performed by Jehovah, as described at Genesis 2:22-24."*

God didn't just give Adam a friend. One of the functions of a woman is found at Genesis 2:18. We see that she is to keep him company and be his helper. The primary function of women is found in Genesis chapter 1 vs. 28. God gives them the commandment to be fruitful and multiply.

So we see that the marriage was set up to do 2 things. To keep each other company and for procreation. A transsexual relationship wouldn't create children thus beating the second point of marriage.

Remember in Leviticus 18:22 that god forbids men from having sex with men. There are no exceptions there. It doesn't say 2 man may have sex if one doesn't have genitals. Just because a man has lost his genitals doesn't mean he isn't a man. In Romans 1:24-27 it says

"For their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature."

So god views the same acts with women in the same way as 2 men. If god had wanted an exception for transsexuals, then he would have had it recorded and made it known in the scriptures. Only a man and woman could get married then, up to now, the act of sex with a transsexual would be fornication.

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If their is a mix up, its due to genetic and moral corruption, which is a direct result of Adams Fall. It is no different to any other corruption and such people are in need of faith, as much as any other, in order that Christ might heal our broken bones.!

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