Did Jesus baptize or not in St. John's account?

Question

John 3:22 (KJV)

22 “After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized.”

John 4:1-2 (KJV)

1 “When therefore the LORD knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John, 2 (Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)”

In John's account in chapter 3 we have Jesus baptizing whereas not long afterward John explicitly mentions that Jesus did not baptize. Why is this?

Answer 1

It is obvious from the text of John 4:22 that Jesus was not the one actually performing the dipping, but his apostles.

The idea here is that the apostles were baptizing on his behalf. Because they were baptizing in his name, it was, in essence, Jesus baptizing.

We, today, have the power to do the same thing:

Matthew 28:19 (NIV)

Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit

Answer 2

Jesus' disciples were taking converts into the water and baptizing them, but it was counted as though they were Jesus' converts (as opposed to John's).

It is probable that after Jesus preached for some time, many converts came forward to be baptized, and the disciples met them and took them to the water. Even though Jesus did not physically baptize anyone, they were still counted to him when comparing with how many John had baptized.

Answer 3

This might not be a contradiction. John 3:22 doesn't say who Jesus baptized at that time. It might mean that he baptized his disciples at that time.

We also might consider that possibility that Jesus performed baptisms at first, until the number of people arriving for baptism became so great that he was required to delegate the baptism to his disciples.