First of all the word Trinity does not exist in the Bible.
Second, the Trinity is an invention in the third century in Nicene Creed:
“The Nicene Creed is actually not the product of the First Council of Nicea (325) . . . but of the First Council of Constantinople (381),” says The New Westminster Dictionary of Church History.
“The Council of Nicea in 325 stated the crucial formula for [the yet future Trinity] doctrine in its confession that the Son is ‘of the same substance . . . as the Father.’”—Encyclopædia Britannica.
The Athanasian Creed mentions : "the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, and yet there are not three Gods but one God." In this Trinity of Persons the Son is begotten of the Father by an eternal generation, and the Holy Spirit proceeds by an eternal procession from the Father and the Son"
Reference: http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/15047a.htm - catholic encyclopedia
Jesus is not God, he has a God:
- “I [Jesus] ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God.”—John 20:17.
- “To us there is but one God, the Father.”—1 Corinthians 8:6.
- “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.”—1 Peter 1:3.
Jesus has a beginning while God has not
“These things saith the Amen [Jesus], . . . the beginning of the creation of God.”—Revelation 3:14.
"He[Jesus] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation." _ Colossians 1:15
Jesus is not co-equal to God
“My Father is greater than I [Jesus].”—John 14:28.
“I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a woman is her husband, and the head of Christ is God.” _ 1
“‘God has put all things in subjection under his [Jesus’] feet.’ But when it says, ‘All things are put in subjection under him,’ it
is plain that he is excepted who put all things under him. When all
things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be
subjected to him who put all things under him, that God may be
everything to every one.” _ 1 Cor. 15:27, 28
Jesus said in prayer: “Father, . . . this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast
sent.” (John 17:1-3). [Think: who is Jesus praying to?]
Holy Spirit is not a person
The Holy Scriptures tell us the personal name of the Father—Jehovah. They inform us that the Son is Jesus Christ. But nowhere in the Scriptures is a personal name applied to the holy spirit.
The New Catholic Encyclopedia admits: “The majority of N[ew] T[estament] texts reveal God’s spirit as something, not someone; this is especially seen in the parallelism between the spirit and the power of God.” (1967, Vol. XIII, p. 575) It also reports: “The Apologists [Greek Christian writers of the second century] spoke too haltingly of the Spirit; with a measure of anticipation, one might say too impersonally.”—Vol. XIV, p. 296.
Source for below information: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989240 and http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276
Does John 1:1 prove that Jesus is God?
John 1:1, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with
God, and the Word was God [also KJ, JB, Dy, Kx, NAB].” NE reads “what
God was, the Word was.” Mo says “the Logos was divine.”
What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying “the Word was God”? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os′ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god.
*What did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, Joh 1 verse 18, John wrote:
“No one [“no man,” KJ, Dy] has ever seen God; the only Son [“the
only-begotten god,” NW], who is in the bosom of the Father, he has
made him known.”
(RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ, the Son? Of course! So, then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Toward the end of his Gospel, John summarized matters, saying: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, [not God, but] the Son of God.”—John 20:31, RS.
Does Thomas’ exclamation at John 20:28 prove that Jesus is truly God?
There is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what
Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus’ own quotation
from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as
“gods.” (John 10:34, 35, RS; Ps. 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a
position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his
position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (NW) Jesus is referred
to as “the only-begotten god.” (See also Ro, By.) Isaiah 9:6 (RS) also
prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but not as the Almighty
God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus’ being described as “a god,”
or “divine,” at John 1:1 (NW, AT). The context helps us to draw the
right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had
heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the only true
God.” (John 17:3, RS) After Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a
message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: “I am
ascending . . . to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, RS) After
recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the
resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: “These are written that
you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that
believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31, RS) So, if
anyone has concluded from Thomas’ exclamation that Jesus is himself
“the only true God” or that Jesus is a Trinitarian “God the Son,” he
needs to look again at what Jesus himself said (Joh 20 vs. 17) and at
the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (Joh 20 vs.
Do the miracles performed by Jesus prove that he is God?
Acts 10:34, 38, RS: “Peter opened his mouth and said: ‘ . . . God
anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power; . . .
he went about doing good and healing all that were oppressed by the
devil, for God was with him.’” (So Peter did not conclude from the
miracles that he observed that Jesus was God but, rather, that God was
with Jesus. Compare Matthew 16:16, 17.)
Is Jehovah in the “Old Testament” Jesus Christ in the “New Testament”?
Ps. 110:1: “The utterance of Jehovah to my [David’s] Lord is: ‘Sit at
my right hand until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.’”
(At Matthew 22:41-45, Jesus explained that he himself was David’s
“Lord,” referred to in this psalm. So Jesus is not Jehovah but is the
one to whom Jehovah’s words were here directed.) Phil. 2:9-11: “For
this very reason also God exalted him [Jesus Christ] to a superior
position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name,
so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven
and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should
openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the
Father. [Dy reads: “ . . . every tongue should confess that the Lord
Jesus Christ is in the glory of God the Father.” Kx and CC read
similarly, but a footnote in Kx acknowledges: “ . . . the Greek is
perhaps more naturally rendered ‘to the glory,’” and NAB and JB render
it that way.]” (Notice that Jesus Christ is here shown to be different
from God the Father and subject to Him.)
What is the meaning of John 5:18?
John 5:18, RS: “This was why the Jews sought all the more to kill him,
because he not only broke the sabbath but also called God his Father,
making himself equal with God.” It was the unbelieving Jews who
reasoned that Jesus was attempting to make himself equal with God by
claiming God as his Father. While properly referring to God as his
Father, Jesus never claimed equality with God. He straightforwardly
answered the Jews: “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing
of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing.” (John
5:19, RS; see also John 14:28; John 10:36.) It was those unbelieving
Jews, too, who claimed that Jesus broke the Sabbath, but they were
wrong also about that. Jesus kept the Law perfectly, and he declared:
“It is lawful to do good on the sabbath.”—Matt. 12:10-12, RS.
Texts in which the plural form of nouns is applied to God in the Hebrew Scriptures
At Genesis 1:1 the title “God” is translated from ’Elo·him′, which is
plural in Hebrew. Trinitarians construe this to be an indication of
the Trinity. They also explain Deuteronomy 6:4 to imply the unity of
members of the Trinity when it says, “The LORD our God [from
’Elo·him′] is one LORD.” The plural form of the noun here in Hebrew is
the plural of majesty or excellence. (See NAB, St. Joseph Edition,
Bible Dictionary, p. 330; also, New Catholic Encyclopedia, 1967, Vol.
V, p. 287.) It conveys no thought of plurality of persons within a
godhead. In similar fashion, at Judges 16:23 when reference is made to
the false god Dagon, a form of the title ’elo·him′ is used; the
accompanying verb is singular, showing that reference is to just the
one god. At Genesis 42:30, Joseph is spoken of as the “lord”
(’adho·neh′, the plural of excellence) of Egypt. The Greek language
does not have a ‘plural of majesty or excellence.’ So, at Genesis 1:1
the translators of LXX used ho The·os′ (God, singular) as the
equivalent of ’Elo·him′. At Mark 12:29, where a reply of Jesus is
reproduced in which he quoted Deuteronomy 6:4, the Greek singular ho
The·os′ is similarly used. At Deuteronomy 6:4, the Hebrew text
contains the Tetragrammaton twice, and so should more properly read:
“Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.” (NW) The nation of Israel, to whom
that was stated, did not believe in the Trinity. The Babylonians and
the Egyptians worshiped triads of gods, but it was made clear to
Israel that Jehovah is different.
1 John 5:7, 8:
KJ reads: “For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father,
the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are
three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the
blood: and these three agree in one.” (Dy also includes this
Trinitarian passage.) However, NW does not include the words “in
heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are
one. And there are three that bear witness in earth.” (RS, NE, TEV,
JB, NAB also leave out the Trinitarian passage.) Regarding this
Trinitarian passage, textual critic F. H. A. Scrivener wrote: “We need
not hesitate to declare our conviction that the disputed words were
not written by St. John: that they were originally brought into Latin
copies in Africa from the margin, where they had been placed as a
pious and orthodox gloss on ver. 8: that from the Latin they crept
into two or three late Greek codices, and thence into the printed
Greek text, a place to which they had no rightful claim.”—A Plain
Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament (Cambridge, 1883,
third ed.), p. 654.
It is sad to see how Trinitarians were desperate to alter the scripture above to prove prove their doctrine that is clearly not Biblical.
When saying, “I and the Father are one,” did Jesus mean that they were
equal? Some Trinitarians say that he did. But at John 17:21, 22, Jesus
prayed regarding his followers: “That they may all be one,” and he
added, “that they may be one even as we are one.” He used the same
Greek word (hen) for “one” in all these instances. Obviously, Jesus’
disciples do not all become part of the Trinity. But they do come to
share a oneness of purpose with the Father and the Son, the same sort
of oneness that unites God and Christ.
Since Jesus was a Jew by birth, he was instructed to follow this same command. After his baptism, when tempted by the Devil, he said: “Go away, Satan! For it is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” (Matthew 4:10; Deuteronomy 6:13) We can learn at least two things from this incident. First, Satan was trying to entice Jesus to worship someone other than Jehovah, an attempt that would have been absurd if Jesus were part of the same God. Second, Jesus made it clear that there is just one God who must be worshiped when he said “him alone,” not “us,” which he would have said if he were part of a Trinity.
What the Bible teaches about God and Jesus is clear and simple. It is not difficult to understand. Neither the word “Trinity” nor the concept is found in God’s Word. The Bible clearly states that Jesus Christ is God’s firstborn Son. (Colossians 1:15) It also points to Jesus as being the “mediator between God and men.” (1 Timothy 2:5) About the Father, the Bible says: “You, whose name is Jehovah, you alone are the Most High over all the earth.”—Psalm 83:18.
He will be great and will be called the Son (huios) of the Most High.
The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David