It was foretold that a virgin shall give birth and the new born will be named Emmanuel then why was Jesus named "Yeshua". (Isaiah 7:10) Please explain...
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You are confusing titles with proper names.
It would be akin to asking "Why is Obama referred to as POTUS when his parents called him Barak and his friends call him Barry?" Each title, name, and construct reveals more information about the identity of this man, or in the case of Jesus, this God who became Man and dwelt among us.
Jesus Christ is the Word of God, who himself is God, who became flesh and made his dwelling among us, hence, the meaning, "God with us".
Notice here that Isaiah simply gave the name but Matthew gave us the meaning of the name Immanuel as "God with us". Isaiah also gave other names for the Messiah.
Since Immanuel was not the only name predicted by Isaiah, it has to do with the attributes of the Messiah. Literally, Jesus Christ is the meaning of Immanuel, God who dwelled among us, who became human, hence the title "Son of Man".
His whole title in Aramaic is actually " ישוע משחא בר אלהא אחדאיא ", or "Jesus the Messiah, the only Begotten Son of God", according to the Nicene creed written in Aramaic. It shows how God is with us in that respect.
Not only that, but the prophecies in Isaiah can be taken to mean qualities of the Messiah, literally being called (qarat shemo וְקָרָ֥את שְׁמ֖וֹ, or in Aramaic taqarai shemieh תקרי שמיה ), as in He will be called Immanuel, otherwise, it would have been "at shimo את שמו".
Also in this verse, the literal Hebrew and Aramaic both state that his name will be called, not that his name will be.
It's not directly "at shimo Immanual" it's "qarat shimo", or "called the name Emmanuel".
The Aramaic Targum and Hebrew text out the prophecy, showing it's what earlier Jews believed. It is as much a name as it is a title of Christ.
For a further understanding on how that works, look at Gen 17:19.
With the naming of Issac (Yitzhak). "w qarat at-shimo yitzkhaq וְקָרָ֥אתָ אֶת־ שְׁמ֖וֹ יִצְחָ֑ק". The accusative is here to show that his name will be indeed Yitzkhak, while in Isaiah, the prophecy states that "qarat shimo Imanuel", no "at" at all (no pun intended).
This "at" particle, according to An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax By Bruce K. Waltke, Michael Patrick, it states on page 162, section 10.1
In this case, with Yitzkhak, it's definite because it's saying his (the name) will be Issac. In Jesus' case, the name Imanuel does not directly refer to his name actual, but something he will be called. The same thing in Isaiah 9:6, there is no 'at' particle to show that it would be his actual name.
Again, we only see וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמֹ֜ו, and there is no אֶת־שְׁמֹ֖ו, or the direct prophecy that his name will be, as how Issac was named.
Let me use verses from Old Testament and New Testament:
In Aramaic, it must be noted that Immanuel is written as "Ammanueil" (Aramaic form of Hebrew name "Immanuel").
In Matthew 1:25, we see the naming of the child which is "Yeshua" in Aramaic (in English "Jesus").
I believe Aramaic name "Yeshua" can mean "YA has equated." YA (in Aramaic OT and Aramaic NT) is the Aramaic form of Hebrew "YH" in "YHWH." Because of this, Hebrew name "Yehochanan" is "Yochanan" in Aramaic. Another example is Hebrew name "Yehonathan" is "Yonathan" in Aramaic. For Respect, "YA" is addressed as "MarYA" (Master YA) in Aramaic OT and Aramaic NT.
From what I learned, YA has equated (Yeshua) the mankind by becoming a human being. Through this, God is with us.
First let us understand this so called name Emmanuel
Now upon closer examination of the Hebrew you will see that this name Emmanuel comes from two words.
The First Word
This word gets translated as "with us"
The Second Word
Al gets translated as God
If Jesus was Emmanuel why was Christ named Yeshua?
The Prophet was to come in his Name
It was foretold that a virgin shall give birth and the new born will be named Emmanuel then why was Jesus named "Yeshua". Please explain...
The Beginning I to Iesou the Greek rendition of the holy name represents the Yud. Another way to pronounce a Yud is so yodh. The Greek Iota is so the same letter. That's how we got the English I. The letter J transformed from the letter I during the 1800s. It got its J sound through French influence in romantic dialect.
The Greek Epsilon represents the Hebrew Hey. Therefore the Je in the beginning of the name of Jesus actually represents the holy name for God. However in pronunciation the Greek ie can carry the sound of the letter i for the word "in".
The next Greek letter the sigma sounds like an S.
In Hebrew form of the name of Jesus the final letter is so the Ayin, a silent letter. So the name of the "I am" is so also "Is".
Also the holy name we find both with the aleph prefix and also the Yud prefix. So in most cases where it is so translated as Lord would mean "he am" not "I am" therefore more appropriate to English and the holy name "Be", for it also says Holy "Be" thy name, "he Is". - it is what it is, it will be what it will be, I am that I am. Amen (so Be it).
protected by Caleb♦ Aug 30 '14 at 10:57
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