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It was foretold that a virgin shall give birth and the new born will be named Emmanuel then why was Jesus named "Yeshua". Please explain...

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Emmanuel is a title--not a name. Emmanuel means "God with us". Jesus was "God with us", the "King of Kings", "Almighty God", "Wonderful Counselor", etc.--all of which are titles, not names. We say "Mr. President", "Mr. Speaker", "Your Honor", etc., but these are titles, not names. –  Narnian Jul 18 '13 at 12:30
    
@Narnian: I think the actual language in which the line was written might clear the picture a bit. May I gracefully ask what is your source of this idea that it's a title. –  Albert Jul 18 '13 at 12:40
    
Welcome to C.SE, and not a bad first question! –  Affable Geek Jul 18 '13 at 13:22
    
Sounds like a question all its own, so I added it: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/17709/… –  Narnian Jul 18 '13 at 18:48
    
In the original language, 'name' means more than in our common usage. It means name, but also authority, character, renown, or reputation, as in "he's making a name for himself". Emmanuel is indeed a name. –  Andrew 10 hours ago

9 Answers 9

You are confusing titles with proper names.

  1. Yesh'ua (Heb.) is rendered "Jesus" or "Joshua" today. It is his given name. It means "Jehovah Saves."

  2. Christos (Greek) is a title translating the Hebrew "Messiah" or "Annointed One." It highlights his annointed and special status.

  3. Immanuel (Heb.) is a simple Hebrew construction that says "God is with us." It is as much sign as name. It signifies that in coming to Earth, God has chosen to dwell among us.

It would be akin to asking "Why is Obama referred to as POTUS when his parents called him Barak and his friends call him Barry?" Each title, name, and construct reveals more information about the identity of this man, or in the case of Jesus, this God who became Man and dwelt among us.

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Let me use verses from Old Testament and New Testament:

Isaiah 7:14 (NIV) - Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.

Matthew 1:23 (NIV) - “The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel” (which means “God with us”).

In Aramaic, it must be noted that Immanuel is written as "Ammanueil" (Aramaic form of Hebrew name "Immanuel").

In Matthew 1:25, we see the naming of the child which is "Yeshua" in Aramaic (in English "Jesus").

I believe Aramaic name "Yeshua" can mean "YA has equated." YA (in Aramaic OT and Aramaic NT) is the Aramaic form of Hebrew "YH" in "YHWH." Because of this, Hebrew name "Yehochanan" is "Yochanan" in Aramaic. Another example is Hebrew name "Yehonathan" is "Yonathan" in Aramaic. For Respect, "YA" is addressed as "MarYA" (Master YA) in Aramaic OT and Aramaic NT.

From what I learned, YA has equated (Yeshua) the mankind by becoming a human being. Through this, God is with us.

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Ya has equated? –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Jul 18 '13 at 5:02
    
When I said "Equate", I meant "to make equal." By becoming a human being, Jesus Christ opened the door of salvation for both Jews and Gentiles. We all are one in Christ. –  konwayk Jul 18 '13 at 5:10
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And what source supports your assertion that "'Yeshua' can mean 'Ya has equated.'"? –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Jul 18 '13 at 5:46
    
Check Wheeler Thackston's Book "Introduction to Syriac" ("Vocabulary" section). –  konwayk Jul 18 '13 at 6:29
    
I don't have access to that book. Just tell me the root verb meaning "equated" in your theory. –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Jul 18 '13 at 7:48

John 1:1 (NIV) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 1:14 (NIV) The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Jesus Christ is the Word of God, who himself is God, who became flesh and made his dwelling among us, hence, the meaning, "God with us".

Isaiah 7:14 (NIV) Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.

Matthew 1:23 (NIV) “The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel”(which means “God with us”).

Notice here that Isaiah simply gave the name but Matthew gave us the meaning of the name Immanuel as "God with us". Isaiah also gave other names for the Messiah.

Isaiah 9:6 (NIV) For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Since Immanuel was not the only name predicted by Isaiah, it has to do with the attributes of the Messiah. Literally, Jesus Christ is the meaning of Immanuel, God who dwelled among us, who became human, hence the title "Son of Man".

Matthew 26:63-64 (NIV) But Jesus remained silent. The high priest said to him, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Messiah, the Son of God.” “You have said so,” Jesus replied. “But I say to all of you: From now on you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven.”

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His whole title in Aramaic is actually " ישוע משחא בר אלהא אחדאיא ", or "Jesus the Messiah, the only Begotten Son of God", according to the Nicene creed written in Aramaic. It shows how God is with us in that respect.

Not only that, but the prophecies in Isaiah can be taken to mean qualities of the Messiah, literally being called (qarat shemo וְקָרָ֥את שְׁמ֖וֹ, or in Aramaic taqarai shemieh תקרי שמיה ), as in He will be called Immanuel, otherwise, it would have been "at shimo את שמו".

Also in this verse, the literal Hebrew and Aramaic both state that his name will be called, not that his name will be.

Isaiah 7:10

Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.

  • לָ֠כֵן יִתֵּ֨ן אֲדֹנָ֥י ה֛וּא לָכֶ֖ם א֑וֹת הִנֵּ֣ה הָעַלְמָ֗ה הָרָה֙ וְיֹלֶ֣דֶת בֵּ֔ן וְקָרָ֥את שְׁמ֖וֹ עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל

It's not directly "at shimo Immanual" it's "qarat shimo", or "called the name Emmanuel".

The Aramaic Targum and Hebrew text out the prophecy, showing it's what earlier Jews believed. It is as much a name as it is a title of Christ.

For a further understanding on how that works, look at Gen 17:19.

Genesis 17:19

Then God said, "Yes, but your wife Sarah will bear you a son, and you will call him Isaac. I will establish my covenant with him as an ever lasting covenant for his descendants after him.

  • וַיֹּ֣אמֶר אֱלֹהִ֗ים אֲבָל֙ שָׂרָ֣ה אִשְׁתְּךָ֗ יֹלֶ֤דֶת לְךָ֙ בֵּ֔ן וְקָרָ֥אתָ אֶת־שְׁמֹ֖ו יִצְחָ֑ק וַהֲקִמֹתִ֨י אֶת־בְּרִיתִ֥י אִתֹּ֛ו לִבְרִ֥ית עֹולָ֖ם לְזַרְעֹ֥ו אַחֲרָֽיו׃

With the naming of Issac (Yitzhak). "w qarat at-shimo yitzkhaq וְקָרָ֥אתָ אֶת־ שְׁמ֖וֹ יִצְחָ֑ק". The accusative is here to show that his name will be indeed Yitzkhak, while in Isaiah, the prophecy states that "qarat shimo Imanuel", no "at" at all (no pun intended).

This "at" particle, according to An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax By Bruce K. Waltke, Michael Patrick, it states on page 162, section 10.1

...the particle at is often used with the definite accusative

In this case, with Yitzkhak, it's definite because it's saying his (the name) will be Issac. In Jesus' case, the name Imanuel does not directly refer to his name actual, but something he will be called. The same thing in Isaiah 9:6, there is no 'at' particle to show that it would be his actual name.

Isaiah 9:6

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

-כִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּ֚ן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמֹ֑ו וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמֹ֜ו פֶּ֠לֶא יֹועֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבֹּ֔ור אֲבִיעַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֹֽום׃

Again, we only see וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמֹ֜ו, and there is no אֶת־שְׁמֹ֖ו, or the direct prophecy that his name will be, as how Issac was named.

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Where is that full title used in the scriptures? –  curiousdannii 11 hours ago
    
It's taken from the Nicene creed in Aramaic, which I believe was taken from John 3:16. I would cite the source, but unfortunately I can't find my prayer book online. It is written in Syriac, however, I wrote in Hebrew because Google has an option for Hebrew, and I do not know how to get Syriac font on my computer. The alphabet is close enough that I didn't have to study it long before knowing which letters correspond to which. –  Nail 11 hours ago
    
Welcome to the site. We are glad you decided to participate. This answer needs more support. It needs sources and citations, if necessary, to support what you are saying. Otherwise, it just looks like your opinion. Please add more to it to make a truly academic answer. Thank you. References: Guidelines for writing effective answers and What is a well-sourced, dispassionate answer? –  fredsbend 11 hours ago
    
@curiousdannii the prayer is written in Neo-Aramaic, as such, the only difference is saying "the only", as over time, akhadaya "אחדאיא" turned into "wakhid" "וחיד" (as in وحيد ), showing how the language is absorbing Arabic influence. –  Nail 8 hours ago
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Nice information. +1. You might also be interested in our sister site, Biblical Hermeneutics. You certainly seem to have the knowledge that they are looking for over there. –  fredsbend 8 hours ago

Isaiah 7:13-14 is prediction of God becoming a man, by stretching out his arm to redeem mankind. And so, The Lord has become our salvation and deliverance. And Yeshua means salvation and deliverance. The Latin word "esus" means devoured, wasted, and consumed. And the latin word "sous" means the sun. And the latin word "sus" means the pig. And so, God sent his word through a physical birth as a testimony in accord with his own word. The son of God was The Lord in a human body. After his crucifixion, he rose from the grave and he is alive for ever. so why did tradition change his name into devoured, when the Messiah's name Yeshua means salvation, which also means preservation and the act of being kept alive.

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Welcome to C.SE. When you get the chance, please check out our tour and specifically How we are different than other sites. Could you source the assertion that Jesus in Latin means wasted? –  Affable Geek Dec 12 '13 at 21:17

First let us understand the name Emmanuel

Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel. (Isaiah 7:14 NKJV)

Now upon closer examination of the Hebrew you will see that this name Emmanuel comes from two words.

עמנו אל

The First Word
Uses the Hebrew letters (Ayin - Mem - Nun - Vav), and is pronounced (Emnou)

The Second Word
Uses the Hebrew letters (Aleph - Lamed), and is pronounced (El)

When the two words are together
EmnouEl - Sound familiar?

The first word is used as a title. The Second Word is the !Name of the Living God!

Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name {title} God.

Since Deciphering the meaning to the title I shall pass this teaching block, and continue to how the name "Jesus" is the Name of God.

If Jesus was Emmanuel why was Christ named Yeshua? Christ came in his own name. (John 5:43)

The Prophet was to come in his Name

I will raise up for them a Prophet like you from among their brethren, and will put My words in His mouth, and He shall speak to them all that I command Him. 19 And it shall be that whoever will not hear My words, which He speaks in My name, I will require it of him. 20 But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in My name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, that prophet shall die.’ (Deuteronomy 18:18-20 NKJV)

It was foretold that a virgin shall give birth and the new born will be named Emmanuel then why was Jesus named "Yeshua". Please explain... Emmanuel means "God with us". The Father's name is composed from the four Hebrew letters Yod Hey Vav - Hey. The Hebrew form for Jesus is Yod Hey Vav - Shin Ayin. Now to get the correct pronunciation we can refer to the rules of Hebrew pronunciation and the example given to use by the Greek usage of the name of Jesus.

Now the first two letters Yod Hey follow a Cv pattern instead of a CvC pattern so the pronunciation is Yih. The beginning of the Greek usage agrees to this The Beginning I to Iesous has the sound of a Y. So the Hebrew and the Greek agree, the sound would be "Yie". The original sound of a Vav has the sound of "oo" you can see that the Greek authors tried to compare this sound to the Greek with the use of the "ou".

Now in the Fathers name the final Hey is most likely the sound of a breath a "ah" exhale. The the Shin has a "sh" sound, but the Greek does not. The closest sound Greek has is the Sigma an S sound. Ayin's are typically silent.

So in pronunciation the name of Jesus in the Original Hebrew for would have been very similar to "Yie-oo-sh" the Greek Form would have been verbalized "Yes - oos". The English J originated from the Greek I so natural to translation we have the English version "Jes-us". The word form Yeshua is incorrect for it enunciates the ending Ayin and ignors the sound of the Vav.

So "Yie - oo - ah" came to save "Yie - oo - sh" and since he was with us, "His name is with us" his name is God, so he was with us "Emmanuel". You see his name is Holy, and he would not let the demons speak (Mark 1:34). When you make silent the form "Yie - Oo" and remove it from "Yie - oo - sh" you are left with "sh" the powerful Holy word that stops evil and will make Satan run away.

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You can also gain insight if you look at the meanings of the different names in the context of when and how they were revealed:

  • Emmanuel is "God With Us"
  • Yeshua is "God Saves"

Isaiah reveals Emmanuel in the context of a passage relating to earthly kings and kingdoms and so this is sufficiently vague to give scope to the Jewish nationalists of the time to believe that the Messiah would be a warrior come to save the Jewish kingdom.

The name Yeshua is revealed at the time of the coming of Christ and communicates God's desire to rescue the world from itself, rather than to fight battles for the Jews.

This gap in revelation gives the Pharisees and Jewish nationalism a chance to establish itself in the Jewish people.

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Welcome to the site. We are glad you decided to participate. This answer needs more support. It needs sources and citations, if necessary, to support what you are saying. Otherwise, it just looks like your opinion. Please add more to it to make a truly academic answer. Thank you. References: Guidelines for writing effective answers and What is a well-sourced, dispassionate answer? –  fredsbend 11 hours ago

Yehoshu’a not yeshua. Yeshu'a is just a contracted form of Yehoshu'a and Yehoshu’a is Joshua in English, not Jesus. Jesus Christ is a name made up by the church and written into the bible. Jesus Christ has no significant meaning at all for the time period that Yehoshu’a Immanuel lived (Jesus Christ has no Hebrew meaning). Yehoshu'a Immanuel now there is a name. Yehoshu'a means Yahweh (the name of God) is salvation. Immanuel means Yahweh/Elohim is with us. God is salvation and God is with us. Also it says and he will be called Immanuel and he was called Immanuel. Yehoshu'a Immanuel of Nazareth. Research how many people were known by two names and the place they were from back then.

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Any references for this idea I've never heard before? –  Narnian Nov 6 '13 at 22:54
    
Though I know most of this is actually correct, the community here does prefer sources. Also, we strive to be academic so if you could edit out the negative tone and correct the grammar and spelling errors this post would be well received. One little nit pick on the content: Saying Immanuel means "Yahweh is with us" is not exactly correct because Yahweh is a different name for God than the 'el' in Immanuel alludes to. That name is "Elohim" and it is somewhat informal compared to Yahweh, which is extremely personal. –  fredsbend Nov 6 '13 at 23:10
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Also, the Christ part of "Jesus Christ" is the English version of the Greek version of the Hebrew word for Messiah, so it is not exactly a made up thing, though it is difficult for the common person to see what it means without having had Bible training. –  fredsbend Nov 6 '13 at 23:11
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I'll remove my downvote if this is edited as suggested. It's also worth bearing in mind that Jesus is the Latinised version of the Greek version of Joshua. Greek doesn't have a sh sound, and male names in Greek tend to end in s. –  Andrew Leach Nov 7 '13 at 8:14
    
Sources are mostly from long talks with many different church leaders but here are two sites to check out. I would recommend doing a nice long study on the name Jesus Christ and how it and God was put into the Bible to replace the original names. And the other changes that were made to accommodate the Romans and the Greeks. And Elohim was a Hebrew name for God. Yehweh is what he called himself. So I tend to use Yehweh, just as I use Yeshoshu'a Immanuel. knowingthebible.net/the-meaning-of-yahweh yhwhremnant.org/yahshua-vs-jesus.html –  Joshua Harvison Nov 10 '13 at 2:42

Because it was foretold that there will be a child, called Emmanuel, in the days of the king Ahab, who will then see that even before the baby was able to distinguish between good and evil, the kings, sieged Jerusalem, went away with nothing.

Than it was Yeshua who has nothing to do with the foretold by the prophet to Ahab.

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Welcome to Christianity Stack Exchange! We're a little different from other Christian websites. This is really a comment, not an answer (and I'm not sure I understand your reasoning, which may be due to poor grammar). With a bit more rep, you will be able to post comments. I'm flagging this post for deletion and recommending it be converted into a comment for you. –  Daи Dec 13 '13 at 20:30

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