The Bible was not available in the hands of common people in Medieval times (5th - 15th century). Which of these possible reasons are plausible?
- The common people were poor and could not afford to get the Bible.
- The Bible was not for sale in the market.
- The Catholic Church did not want the common people to read the Bible.
- The common people were illiterate.
- The common people did not speak Latin.
- The people were not pious enough to bother reading the Bible.
- The people had a mindset that reading the Bible is the job of scholars or bishops.
Are there any other possible reasons?