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A common assertion is that the Gospel of John uniquely presents Jesus as "the Son of God", while Matthew presents Him as "the King of the Jews", Mark as the "Servant", and Luke as "the Son of Man".

What is peculiar in the Gospel of John that gives rise to this particular distinction?

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Maybe part of it is how he is presented as the Word in John? –  SSumner Apr 9 '13 at 22:01
There are also a lot of "I AM" references in John. The last prayers in John also have a more "Divine" feel (triumphant, emphasis on glory) while the other gospels present a more human feel recognizing that (both spiritual and physical) pain hurts (please, if there is any other way). –  Paul A. Clayton Apr 9 '13 at 22:25
Also John 3:16"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten son,................" –  user10209 Mar 1 '14 at 7:38

1 Answer 1

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This idea comes primarily from the presentation of Jesus throughout the Gospel, which is summarized nicely by the Biblical author himself:

Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name. -John 20:30-31

For example, consider the closing statement in the first section (1:1-18):

No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. -John 1:18

...or the climactic statement of John the Baptist at the end of the second section (1:19-34):

I myself have seen, and have testified that this is the Son of God.” -John 1:34

...or the climactic testimony of Nathanael at the end of the third section (1:35-51):

Nathanael answered Him, “Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel.” -John 1:49

The trend continues throughout the Gospel.

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