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I'll give you an example of a divine person: God the Father. I'll give you an example of a human person: the apostle Paul.

According to Roman Catholic orthodoxy (note: cite it), is Jesus Christ a human person, a divine person, both, or none?

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Are you aiming at differences in the understanding of hypostatic union here or just trying to identify the RCC as Chalcedonian or not or something else? – Caleb♦ Feb 22 at 10:16
Nestorians believed Christ to be two persons: a human person and a divine person. Hence, they reject the term theotokos in reference to Mary, insisting she is only the mother of his humanity. This was considered heresy. I'd like to know what the RCC officially states about what kind of person Jesus is, whether human, divine, both or none, etc. I have no intent of discrediting the RCC; if anything, I respect the work it has done in establishing doctrine and unity, and so, I'm asking it first and foremost. – H3br3wHamm3r81 Feb 22 at 18:08
Answering according to your multiple choice may allow for and encourage an inaccurate interpretation. Christ is one person who is both fully human and fully divine. So, he's a human person, divine person, both, and by some interpretations, neither. I.e. ... all of the above? – svidgen Feb 25 at 17:46
When you say "fully human," are you referring to "person" (hypostasis) or "nature" (ousia)? My question is worded accurately and does not encourage an inaccurate interpretation. Those familiar with Catholic doctrine should be able to answer sufficiently. I gave all possible choices. Divine person, human person, both, or none. Can you think of anything else that could have been offered as a choice? If so, please suggest it and I will consider editing the choices. – H3br3wHamm3r81 Feb 25 at 18:07

2 Answers

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According to Chalcedonian Doctrine (that is shared by Eastern Orthodox, Roman Catholics and Protestant churches) Christ is fully God and fully human.

Christ is however one person which is both God and human. He isn't a person of God that dwelled in a separate human person (which is the teaching of nestorianism).

The Oriental Orthodox (e.g. Coptic) churches reject the teaching of Chalcedonian Council, however they mostly declare, they are not monophysitic. The argument here is partly about the meaning of the work 'nature'.

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Can you please clarify if you are dismissing all the choices, or if you are affirming that he is a divine person, or a human person, or both? I cannot tell from your answer. It only mentions is that he is "one person..." I added "or none" in case you are dismissing all the choices. – H3br3wHamm3r81 Feb 22 at 9:33
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In Chalcedonian Council, a letter from Pope Leo I called "Epistola Dogmatica", was endorsed which explains the mystery of the Incarnation.

Pope declared that :

“after the Incarnation what was proper to each nature and substance in Christ remained intact and both were united in one person, but so that each nature acted according to its own qualities and characteristics.”

Chalcedonian Council, also adopted a document saying:

We teach . . . one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten, known in two natures, without confusion, without change, without division, without separation.

Source:http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03555a.htm

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