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The Catholic prayer referred to as a "Hail Mary" ascribes the phrase "full of grace" to Mary. The Scriptures describe both Jesus and Stephen as being "full of grace". In Greek, this is "πλήρης χάριτος".

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14 ESV

And Stephen, full of grace and power, was doing great wonders and signs among the people. Acts 6:8 ESV

However, there doesn't seem to be any place where the Bible describes Mary in this way. The only place that is close is in Luke 1:28 where the angel greets Mary and indicates that she has been given grace, often translated as "highly favored" (κεχαριτωμένη in Greek).

So, certainly Jesus was "full of grace" and Stephen was identified as being "full of grace". Yet, why does Mary also receive this ascription?

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The Bible I use (RSV-CE) has "Hail, full of grace" for Luke 1:28. So there is precedent in translation. –  Andrew Leach Jan 28 '13 at 19:06
@AndrewLeach Interesting... the Greek word really does not translate to that at all. –  Narnian Jan 28 '13 at 19:10

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The English translation of "full of grace" is derived from the Latin Vulgate translation of Luke 1:28 wherein we find the phrase gratia plena, which translates into English as "full of grace" or "full grace." Gratia is a noun in the nominative case, meaning "grace," and plena is an adjective also in the nominative case, meaning "filled" or "full."

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So, this is a translation of a translation? –  Narnian Jan 28 '13 at 22:15
As the Latin Vulgate is a translation of the Greek manuscripts of the NT which Jerome had in his possession to produce the Vulgate, and the English phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Latin phrase gratia plena, then yes, you are correct. Now, "translations of translations" aren't necessarily erroneous just because they are translations of translations. Otherwise, every English translation would be erroneous. I would recommend studying the original Greek word, and if the Latin does not sync, well, then dismiss the Latin. It is true that Jerome did not always stay true to the Greek. –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Jan 28 '13 at 22:21

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