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Matthew 2:23 NIV

and he went and lived in a town called Nazareth. So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets, that he would be called a Nazarene.

From what research I have done, it does not seem that any of the prophets who are recorded in the old testament said this, or anything similar. Even the apocrypha does not seem to make reference to this prophecy.

Even more troubling, is Matthew saying the prophets, plural, have predicted this, making it even more vexing that it is not written in anywhere in the canon today. What was Matthew referencing here?

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Also, more to the point - why is the sect of Nazarenes (such as Samson was) conflated with a geographical location? – Affable Geek Dec 20 '12 at 23:55
Nazareth is a place and has nothing to do with being a Nazarite. You would be a Nazareen if you came from Nazareth not a Nazarite, two completely different things. – user8826 Nov 30 '13 at 0:02
@zurc maybe, but Matthew is clearly connecting the two? Isn't he? – aceinthehole Dec 1 '13 at 1:04

My response comes from this article about OT prophecy about Jesus from Nazareth.

It basically states that there is no direct Old-Testament reference to Nazareth. The article postulates two explanations:

1) It was a reference that Jesus would be despised.

He says 'prophets,' plural. It could be that Matthew was referring to several Old Testament references to the despised character of Jesus (i.e., Psalm 22:6, 13; 69:10; Isaiah 49:7; 53:3; Micah 5:1). Nazareth held the Roman garrison for the northern areas of Galilee.1 Therefore, the Jews would have little to do with this place and largely despised it

2) It might be a play on words for the Hebrew word for branch.

there could be a play on words that Matthew was referring to. In Isaiah 11:1 it says, "Then a shoot will spring from the stem of Jesse, and a branch from his roots will bear fruit." In Hebrew, the word for "branch" is netzer, "NZR" which letters are included in NaZaReth.

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The root word for Nazareth and Nazirene are similar in both the hebrew and greek. The hebrew NeTseR is used as most likely a play on words in the Hebrew, which is read right to left (Resh-Tsade-Nun : Strong's H5342) means a "figurative descendent". It's direct translation is "Sprout, Shoot, Branch" which used in Isaiah 11:1-refering to Meshiach (Messiah), but also 14:19, 60.21, Dan 11:7. NeTseR is also the root word for Nazereth so in Hebrew the word play would be obvious.

The Gospel of Mathew was written in Hebrew as attributed to the Apostolic Father Papias (Papias, 150-170 CE, quoted by Eusebius, Eccl. Hist. 3:39), and church Fathers, Ireneus (Ireneus, 170 CE, Against Heresies 3:1), Origin (Origen circa 210 CE, quoted by Eusebius, Eccl. Hist. 6:25). Knowing this we imagine there was a play on words, characteristic in Hebrew, in Matt. 2:23" Were Yeshua (Jesus) "...came to a town "NaTseReTh"(little branch) ... ","...Spoken by the Prophets...","...would be called a "NeTseR" (Branch). The greek "Nazoraios" (Strong"s G3480, translated Nazarene in english, would have been Resh-Zayin-Nun in Hebrew, see Amos 2:11,12, but Nazoraios may have been the closest translation in the greek in order to preserve the hebrew word play. It means a Nazirite; one who takes a Nazirite vow. However,we know Yeshuah (Jesus) never took a Nazarite vow since we know he drank wine which is forbidden to any Nazirite. In addition there is nowhere in the prophets that speak of Mashiach being a Nazarite, which is contrary to Mathews gospel.

On the other hand, another hebrew word for "Branch" is TsaMaCh, (Chet-Mem-Tsade in hebrew, Strong's H6780), see; Jer. 23:5, 33:15, Zech. 3:8, 6:12- all clear references to Meshiach, but also found in Isa 4:2, 61:11, , Ezek. 16:7, 17:9,10, Hos. 8:7, Psalm 65:11.

So the theme of "The Branch" referring to Meshiach, NeTseR in Matt. 2:23, TsaMaCh in Jer 23:5, 33:15, Zech 3:8, 6:12, all referring to Yeshua Mashiach, was spoken by the Prophets as well fulfilling Mathew's gospel. Thus the entire statement of Matt 2:23 is fulfilled, but only if we assume a hebrew word play in an original hebrew Gospel of Matthew.

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Some think that Samson was a type of Messiah because he was a Nazarite (one consecrated to God - נָזִר nazir) for his entire life.

Behold, you shall conceive and bear a son. So then drink no wine or strong drink, and eat nothing unclean, for the child shall be a Nazirite to God from the womb to the day of his death.’ (Judges 13:7, ESV)

But this is not the only prophetical book that ties into the Nazarite theme of Messiah. The same Hebrew word 'nazir' is used (set apart) in reference to Joseph who was also a type of Messiah.

The blessings of your father are mighty beyond the blessings of my parents, up to the bounties of the everlasting hills. May they be on the head of Joseph, and on the brow of him who was set apart (נָזִר nazir) from his brothers. (Genesis 49:26, ESV - brackets original Hebrew)

Therefore by both Judges and Genesis playing on the theme of 'nazir' it can be said the prophets predicted that Messiah would be called a Nazarite.

According to Alfred Edersheim there is even an ancient Jewish tradition that seems to recognize this Messianic expectation of nazir:

ancient Jewish tradition, in referring to the blessing spoken to Dan (Gen. xlix. 17, 18), applies this addition: “I have waited for Thy salvation, Jehovah,” through Samson the Danite, to the Messiah. (Alfred Edresheim, Bible History Old Testament)

This view also seems to have been held by John Calvin, here.

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Wow, you are really confused.

First, when the Brit Chadasha (New Testament) was translated from Aramaic to Greek, the scribes mistranslated the singular navi for the plural veviim. Matthew actually said in Aramaic, " foretold by the prophet..." - singular. Who was the prophet. In Hebrew everyone knows "the prophet" refers to Yeshayahu - Isaiah. And Mattityahu (Matthew) is referring to Isaiah 11:1-3. Bear in mind "netzer" means root and branch.

You are correct that Netzari (Nazarene) has nothing to do with a physical location but is actually poetically pointing to the spiritual. So what did Isaiah say?

1 "A (netzer) shoot will come up from the stump of Jesse; from his roots a (netzer) Branch will bear fruit. 2 The Spirit of YHWH will rest on him-- the Spirit of wisdom and of understanding, the Spirit of counsel and of might, the Spirit of the knowledge and fear of YHWH. 3 and he will delight in the fear of YHWH. He will not judge by what he sees with his eyes, or decide by what he hears with his ears;

Isaiah is speaking of this Netzer having humble beginnings in the "stump" of Jesse - it was cut down (off) but this tiny shoot came forth that would eventually branch out to encompass the entire earth with the glory of YHWH.

While Netzarit (Nazareth) means "City of the Branch", it actually has nothing to do with what Mattityahu is speaking of.

This is one example of lost understanding, mis-translation and misinterpretation because of reliance on the Greek translations of the original Aramaic.

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I'm confused along with any reader who is a non Hebrew\Greek scholar – aceinthehole Jul 5 '14 at 21:56
Can you give some references to some other people who argue that 'Nazarene' is a mistranslation of the word for 'shoot/branch'? Also remember the idea that the NT was originally written in Aramaic is very much a minority position, but this could be evidence for it if it was argued well. – curiousdannii Jul 5 '14 at 22:11
Welcome to the site! This doesn't really have much to do with your answer, but I find that sharing the following tends to help new visitors avoid mistaking the purpose of this site. I do hope to see more from you! When you get a chance, please see How we are different than other sites? and What makes a good supported answer? – David Jul 5 '14 at 22:50

Matthew 2:23 is the only biblical reference to Jesus as a Nazarene. This says that this was in fulfilment of a prophecy, but there is no known Old Testament or apocryphal text that mentions Nazarenes. However, there is another intriguing reference that also seems to suggest that the term was not used simply to refer to residents of the village of Nazareth in Galilee.

Acts 24:5 has Tertullus refer to Paul as a ringleader of the sect of the Nazarenes:

For we have found this man a pestilent fellow, and a mover of sedition among all the Jews throughout the world, and a ringleader of the sect of the Nazarenes:

Acts 24:5 does not have to be accepted as historically reliable to be of interest here, since the use of the term in Acts shows that at least by the end of the first century there must have been a sect of that name.

Nearly all critical scholars say that Matthew's Gospel was substantially based on Mark's Gospel, so the author of Matthew knew from several references in Mark's Gospel that Jesus was from Nazareth. But this author found it useful to link Nazareth to being "called a Nazarene." The interpretation of this depends on whether the sect to which Acts 24:5 refers only arose in the approximately two decades that elapsed between the authorship of Matthew and that of Acts, or whether there was already a Nazarene sect of which Matthew's author was aware.

If there was no Old Testament or apocryphal text in which it was prophesied that the Messiah would be a Nazarene, the author of Matthew must have had other reasons for drawing attention to Jesus as a Nazarene. In my view, Acts 24:5 provides that reason, if only obscurely. During the first century, there was a sect of Nazarenes of which Jesus would be seen as the leader.

Note: The Nazarenes should not be confused with Nazarites, such as Samson. It would certainly be hard to picture either Jesus or Paul as having followed the rituals and laws that applied to Nazarites.

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