Is female homosexuality against the law of Moses?

Question

While there are a number of passages in the OT which are taken to condemn male homosexuality (e.g. Lev 18:22, 20:13), I am not aware of any which condemn female homosexuality. It seems to me that all the Biblical arguments against female homosexuality must either rely on:

1. a single NT passage, Romans 1:26-27 (is an NT passage good evidence for what the law of Moses says? - assuming this passage even is about female homosexuality), or
2. more indirect arguments (e.g. Adam and Eve as an ideal which all human beings are required to conform) - the very indirectness of these arguments supports doubting them
3. Traditional Judaism considers female homosexuality to be prohibited, but there is disagreement about whether this is a biblical or post-biblical prohibition (and if the prohibition is post-biblical, then it has little value for those outside of rabbinical Judaism)

So is it fair to say that female homosexuality is not prohibited by the law of Moses?

Answer 1

Quite simply, no, it's not fair to say that. I do not know Hebrews, but I do know that in Greek, the word anthropos indicates a generic man or person, while aner means specifically a person who is male. If we went through the entire Bible and applied an exclusive gender wherever it said "man", it would be nonsensical.

Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man shall his blood be shed, for God made man in his own image. Genesis 9:6 ESV

So, capital punishment if anyone kills a man, but no punishment for killing a woman?

Thus says the Lord: “Let not the wise man boast in his wisdom, let not the mighty man boast in his might, let not the rich man boast in his riches, 24 but let him who boasts boast in this, that he understands and knows me, that I am the Lord who practices steadfast love, justice, and righteousness in the earth. For in these things I delight, declares the Lord.” Jeremiah 9:23-24 ESV

So, men should not boast about wealth or wisdom or strength, but women can?

I know, O Lord, that the way of man is not in himself, that it is not in man who walks to direct his steps. Jeremiah 10:23 ESV

And a man's life is not his own, but woman's life is?

So, again, no, we cannot exclude female homosexuality as being lawful under Mosaic Law just because the word "man" is employed. At best, it would be an argument from silence, but it really isn't from silence.

Answer 2

You missed Romans 1:27, which clearly addresses lesbianism.

Romans 1:27 NIV In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.

The Books of the Law were written in a literary style that generally referred to people, regardless of gender as "man", or "men". That type of usage of the word is still common in literature.

Unless explicitly stated that a certain commandment is meant only for men, or unless the context makes that clear, there's no reason to assume that the Law isn't equally applicable to both genders. (As allowed in the historical-grammatical method of interpretation.)

(End of real answer. Additional supporting thoughts below)

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Just for fun, I'd like to throw in a supporting argument to the "literary style" portion of my answer above. Supposed we applied the same logic used in the question to other passages?:

Matthew 4:4 Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.'"

Resulting question: Does this mean that women should live on bread alone?

Matthew 5:28: But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

Resulting question: Does this mean it's OK to lust after a man?

Deuteronomy 6:20 In the future, when your son asks you, “What is the meaning of the stipulations, decrees and laws the Lord our God has commanded you?” 21 tell him: “We were slaves of Pharaoh in Egypt, but the Lord brought us out of Egypt with a mighty hand.

Resulting question: Does that mean we should not teach our daughters about God?

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Answer 3

In the Hebrew culture, if you're a woman, you're either a) the possession of your father or b) the possession of your husband. If none of those are living, you would be the possession of the next in line of inheritance. It could be your uncle, grandfather, etc.

Women were considered possessions, hence Paulos refers to a married woman by the Greek word ὕπανδρος (hypandros), meaning "under a man" (like a servant under a master) (Rom. 7:2).

Sarah calls Avraham אדון (adon)/ κύριος (kyrios), meaning "lord" or "master," because Avraham is her master/ husband (Gen. 18:12 cp. 1 Pet. 3:6).

The Greek phrase used to refer to marriage is γίνομαι + ἀνδρὶ, literally meaning "become a man's" (Rom. 7:3).

Now, if a woman was living in her father's house, do you not think lesbianism would be considered sinful? I would say so. In fact, I would say it is a violation of the commandment to honor one's mother and father, because it is dishonorable. A woman was supposed to remain a virgin until she was married and living in her husband's house. This is established in Genesis 2.

If a woman was living in her husband's house, then of course it is adultery for a woman to have sex with anyone else but the husband whom she married.

So, I agree that Lev. 18:22 and 20:13 apply specifically to men, but lesbianism is prohibited because: 1) women are the possessions of their father or husband; 2) it is sinful for a married woman to have sex with someone other than her husband; and, 3) it is sinful for a woman to lose her virginity to anyone but her husband.