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According to the Genesis 19:30-38, when Lot escaped out of Zoar, he went up to the mountains and settled in a cave. While in there, his daughters seduced him while he was drunk so that they could bear children and save their family line.

Does this mean saving one's family line is/was so important that you could have sex with your own offspring? Was Lot really drunk to a point that he didn't know what he was doing? Were the daughters wrong to do it? If so, why didn't Lot take any action afterward?

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closed as off-topic by Mr. Bultitude, Nathaniel, curiousdannii, Flimzy, bruised reed Oct 1 at 8:07

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If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

Who justifies this act? I have never met anyone that would justify it. – zefciu Oct 8 '12 at 9:45
As @zefciu says, who justifies it? Even with your edits, I don't understand any Christian needs to explain it. I don't know any Christian who thinks they were doing something moral. – Wikis Oct 8 '12 at 11:20
Nowhere in the Bible does it say Lot was a prophet, nor can I think of anywhere he is put forward of a model of piety. Quite the contrary, his history is a long string of compromises, selfish and even immoral acts. Your question specifically asks "how Christian theologians justify this", but you haven't noted a single Christian theologian that does so. As far as I know, there are none. So what is your question? – Caleb Oct 8 '12 at 11:54
Lot is described in 2 Peter as a righteous man, but that doesn't mean that everything he did was righteous, and it certainly doesn't mean everything his kids did was righteous (ask any parent!). As to your last question, the Bible presents the Truth without Photoshopping out inconvenient details. – Wikis Oct 8 '12 at 11:55
In addition to @Wiki's comments, it should be noted that that when the NT talks about righteous people, it doesn't mean they were roll models of good behavior, it means that through faith they were people God chose to MAKE righteous. This in no way justifies their immoral acts as sinful people, it just means that God made them part of his people through faith. – Caleb Oct 8 '12 at 11:58

1 Answer 1

up vote 11 down vote accepted

There is no denomination or teaching that I'm aware of that approves of this. Your question shows a lack of understanding of the basic nature of that the Bible is.

It is not a collection of stories, showing heroes in a positive light.

It is a collection of books including teachings, but also, largely in the Old Testament in the Pentateuch and the Books of History, a book of history. In a historical book, at least one that is honest and accurate, the failures, frailties, and sins of the people chronicled are not covered up.

Lot's daughters are not the only ones whose sin is shown. Adam and Eve eating the apple, David's sin with Bathsheba, Solomon's pride, lust, and disobedience, and hundreds of others. The Bible includes these sins because they happened, not because they are somehow approved of.

Far from it, in most of the cases, there are repercussions. Perhaps not immediate, but they happen. This is in line with God's nature. He often gives people the chance to repent of their sins.

2 Peter 3:9 (KJV)

The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

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I am a starter, so thanks for the answer. – Noah Oct 8 '12 at 12:19
No problem. It's why the site is here. – David Oct 8 '12 at 12:23

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