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Are inter-faith marriages prohibited by the Bible?

1st & 2nd Corinthians speak of how Christians should not be "unequally yolked" in marriage to non-Christians.

Where else does the Bible talk about marriage to non-Christians?

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marked as duplicate by Wikis, Jon Ericson, David Stratton, El'endia Starman Oct 9 '12 at 2:06

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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Welcome to Christianity.SE. Sorry to close so fast, but the way you have "asked" this is way more of a soap box than a question. There is a valid question in there, but please edit the ranty parts out of it before we turn people loose to answer, otherwise most of what you will get is objections to your rant, which is, quite frankly, not a very sound implementation of either Christian doctrine or hermeneutics. Relying to rants would make this a discussion site rather than QnA. –  Caleb Oct 8 '12 at 8:39
    
Your edits reduced the size of it, but your personal soap box is still the main feature of this "question". I say 'personal' because the assertion that the pastoral letter to the Corinthians and Paul's other writings are not to be applied today and therefore not relevant to addressing this issue is not only contrary to orthodox Christian understanding, but very few un-orthodox groups would even hold a position like that. If the question "Who doesn't believe Paul's pastoral letters are relevant to Christians today?" as a separate question, that might work, but it doesn't belong in this one. –  Caleb Oct 8 '12 at 11:49
    
I'm wondering what your definition of "wrong" is in "marriage to a non-Christian is "wrong". This isn't something that is stated to be a sin. It's foolish as in "you're just asking for trouble", but not an outright sin. It's a warning. One who is a committed Christian, who loves God and wants to serve Him tends to be seen as zealous, and annoys the heck out of those that don't. Imagine how annoying that is to a non-believer. On top of that, throw in the conflicts that would occur in determining where the kids went to Church (if at all) and you're asking for trouble. –  David Stratton Oct 8 '12 at 13:10
    
I think the question needs context to clarify where you're coming from. I can see ways in which the question could be edited for reopening, but without knowing your context, and your current understanding, I wouldn't want to try to edit/improve it because I think I may mess up your original meaning. –  David Stratton Oct 8 '12 at 13:10
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I've tried to edit this into shape. Please let me know if i've obscured the true meaning of your question, I did my best. –  Thomas Shields Oct 8 '12 at 14:48

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The history of the Israelites from the period of Joshua through the Kings is one big warning about intermarrying with other peoples.

  • Joshua adjures the people not to let any men, women, or children in Canaan survive, lest they be a temptation. (Indeed, Rahab is singled out not to be killed* as the exception.)
  • Solomon is chastised for taking concubines from other lands
  • Jezebel, the wife of Ahab is a constant source of temptation to go to other gods, especially Baal.
  • Ruth is seen as extraordinary, being a Moabite, but nonetheless willing to become a Jew for inclusion in the promise.

In every case during this period where foreign wives are mentioned, it is considered a bad thing. Only where foreign wives are willing to drop their identity and join the people of the Land is it ever commended in Scripture.

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Yes, I'm obviously talking about marriage to non-Jews here, but the point is still that the people of the promise are discouraged from syncretism. –  Affable Geek Oct 8 '12 at 15:36

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